Vice Principal / Superintendent ITI - 2024 (Mechanical Engineering)

All VICE PRINCIPAL / SUPERINTENDENT ITI 2024 papers

Questions
148
Marks
150
Time
3h 10m
Per question
1
Wrong answer
-0.33
Not attempted
0

Published by the Rajasthan Public Service Commission.

  1. Q1

    The condition for uniform flow is

    • Achange of velocity with respect to position at a specific time is zero
    • Bchange of velocity with respect to position at a specific time is non zero
    • Cchange of velocity with respect to time at a specific position is zero
    • Dchange of velocity with respect to time at a specific position is non zero
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Uniform flow is defined as a type of flow in which the velocity of the fluid does not change with respect to position (distance) at any given instant of time. In other words, the velocity is constant along the flow path at a specific time. / एकसमान प्रवाह वह होता है जिसमें किसी विशिष्ट समय पर स्थिति के सापेक्ष वेग में परिवर्तन शून्य होता है।

  2. Q2

    The water flows with a velocity of 1.5 m/s in a pipe of length 2500 m and of diameter 500 mm. A valve available at the end of the pipe is closed in 25 seconds, which leads to (take the value of velocity of pressure wave produced due to water hammer (C) = 1000 m/s):

    • AWater hammers due to sudden closure of valve
    • BWater hammers due to gradual closure of valve
    • CNo water hammering due to sudden closure of valve
    • DNo water hammering due to gradual closure of valve
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The critical time for sudden closure is t_c = 2L/C = (2 * 2500) / 1000 = 5 seconds. Since the actual closure time (25 s) is greater than the critical time (5 s), the closure is considered gradual, leading to water hammer due to gradual closure. / चूंकि वाल्व बंद होने का समय (25 सेकंड) क्रिटिकल समय (5 सेकंड) से अधिक है, इसलिए यह वाल्व का क्रमिक बंद होना (gradual closure) माना जाएगा।

  3. Q3

    It is usual to designate the frictional resistance to flow in a pipe by Darcy-Weisbach equations as $h_f = \frac{4flv^2}{2gd}$ For laminar viscous flow (Re < 2000) through a circular pipe, the friction factor varies inversely with Reynolds (Re) number as the relation f :

    • A8/Re
    • B16/Re
    • C32/Re
    • D64/Re
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    For laminar flow in a circular pipe, the friction factor f is related to the Reynolds number (Re) by the formula f = 16/Re. This is derived by equating the Darcy-Weisbach equation with the Hagen-Poiseuille equation for pressure drop. / गोलाकार पाइप में लैमिनार प्रवाह के लिए, घर्षण कारक (friction factor) f और रेनॉल्ड्स संख्या (Re) के बीच संबंध f = 16/Re होता है।

  4. Q4

    The force exerted by a jet of water on a stationary inclined plate (angle $\theta$) in the direction of the jet is given by

    • A$F_x = \rho av^2$
    • B$F_x = \rho av^2 \sin^2\theta$
    • C$F_x = \rho av^2(1 + \cos\theta)$
    • D$F_x = \rho av^2(1 + \sin\theta)$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The force normal to an inclined plate is F_n = ρaV²sinθ. The component of this force in the direction of the jet is F_x = F_n * sinθ = ρaV²sin²θ. / एक झुकी हुई प्लेट पर जेट के दिशा में लगने वाला बल F_x = ρaV²sin²θ होता है, जहाँ θ जेट की दिशा और प्लेट के बीच का कोण है।

  5. Q5

    Find the incorrect statement about the Navier-Stokes equation?

    • AThe Navier-Stokes equation is based on the conservation of momentum
    • BThe Navier-Stokes equation is valid for homogeneous and isotropic fluids
    • CThe Navier-Stokes equation is valid for Stokesian fluids
    • DThe Navier-Stokes equation is valid for Non-Newtonian fluids
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The Navier-Stokes equations are specifically derived for Newtonian fluids, where stress is linearly proportional to the strain rate. They are not valid for Non-Newtonian fluids, which have a non-linear relationship between stress and strain rate. / नेवियर-स्टोक्स समीकरण विशेष रूप से न्यूटोनियन तरल पदार्थों के लिए हैं; वे गैर-न्यूटोनियन तरल पदार्थों के लिए मान्य नहीं हैं।

  6. Q6

    In fluid mechanics the Euler's Number is the ratio of

    • AInertia force to viscous force
    • BInertia force to gravity force
    • CInertia force to pressure force
    • DSquare root of the ratio of the inertia force to the pressure force
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Euler's number (Eu) is a dimensionless quantity that represents the ratio of pressure forces to inertial forces in a fluid flow. / यूलर संख्या (Eu) एक आयामहीन मात्रा है जो द्रव प्रवाह में दबाव बलों और जड़त्व बलों के अनुपात को दर्शाती है।

  7. Q7

    At the vena contracta, the velocity of flow is :

    • A$\sqrt{2gh}$
    • B$\frac{2g}{h}$
    • C$\sqrt{2g}\times h$
    • D$C_d\times \sqrt{2gh}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    According to Torricelli's theorem, the theoretical velocity of a fluid exiting an orifice at the vena contracta is given by the formula √2gh. / टोरिसेली के प्रमेय के अनुसार, वेना कॉन्ट्रैक्टा पर निकलने वाले द्रव का सैद्धांतिक वेग √2gh द्वारा दिया जाता है।

  8. Q8

    When applying dimensional analysis to fluid flow problems, what does the term "Buckingham Pi theorem" refer to ?

    • AA method for determining the number of dimensionless groups in a problem.
    • BA technique for solving Navier-Stokes equations.
    • CA theorem describing the behaviour of ideal gases.
    • DA law governing the conservation of energy in fluid dynamics.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The Buckingham Pi theorem is a key method in dimensional analysis used to determine the number of independent dimensionless groups (Pi terms) that can be formed from a set of physical variables. / बकिंघम पाई प्रमेय आयामी विश्लेषण में एक प्रमुख विधि है जिसका उपयोग भौतिक चरों के समूह से बनाए जा सकने वाले स्वतंत्र आयामहीन समूहों की संख्या निर्धारित करने के लिए किया जाता है।

  9. Q9

    If 'A' is the area immersed in liquid whose specific weight is "w" and h is the height of centre of gravity of the immersed surface from free surface of water, then total pressure force "F" is given by

    • A$F = wA^2h$
    • B$F = w^2Ah$
    • C$wAh^2$
    • D$F = wAh$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The total pressure force (F) on a submerged surface is calculated as the product of the pressure at the centroid (specific weight 'w' multiplied by the depth of the center of gravity 'h') and the area 'A'. कुल दबाव बल (F) विसर्जित सतह के केंद्रक पर दबाव (विशिष्ट भार 'w' और केंद्रक की गहराई 'h' का गुणनफल) और क्षेत्रफल 'A' का गुणनफल होता है।

  10. Q10

    In a four bar chain or quadric cycle chain

    • AEach of the four pair is a turning pair
    • BOne is turning pair and three are sliding pair
    • CThree are turning pair and one is sliding pair
    • DEach of the four pair is a sliding pair
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    A four-bar chain or quadric cycle chain consists of four links connected by four turning (revolute) pairs. फोर-बार चेन या क्वाड्रिक साइकिल चेन में चार लिंक होते हैं जो चार टर्निंग (रिवोल्यूट) पेयर्स द्वारा जुड़े होते हैं।

  11. Q11

    A simple mechanism consists of 11 simple revolute joints and 9 links. What is the degree of freedom of the mechanism ?

    • A0
    • B1
    • C2
    • D3
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Using Kutzbach's criterion for planar mechanisms, DOF = 3(n - 1) - 2j, where n = 9 links and j = 11 joints. DOF = 3(9 - 1) - 2(11) = 24 - 22 = 2. कुट्ज़बाक मानदंड का उपयोग करते हुए, DOF = 3(n - 1) - 2j, जहाँ n = 9 लिंक और j = 11 जोड़ हैं। DOF = 3(8) - 22 = 2।

  12. Q12

    Which of the following is not an example of higher pair ?

    • AWheel rolling on a surface
    • BCam and follower pair
    • CTooth gears
    • DTurning of Nut on a screw
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    A higher pair has point or line contact, whereas a lower pair has surface contact. The turning of a nut on a screw involves surface contact, making it a lower pair. हायर पेयर में बिंदु या रेखा संपर्क होता है, जबकि लोअर पेयर में सतह संपर्क होता है। नट और स्क्रू का टर्निंग सतह संपर्क शामिल करता है, इसलिए यह एक लोअर पेयर है।

  13. Q13

    Which of the following is third inversion of slider crank chain mechanism ?

    • AReciprocating engine
    • BRotary engine
    • COscillating cylinder engine
    • DHand pump
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The third inversion of the slider crank chain is obtained by fixing the connecting rod, which results in an oscillating cylinder engine. (स्लाइडर क्रैंक चेन का तीसरा इन्वर्जन कनेक्टिंग रॉड को स्थिर करके प्राप्त किया जाता है, जिससे ऑसिलेटिंग सिलेंडर इंजन बनता है।)

  14. Q14

    The angle between the direction of the follower motion and a normal to the pitch curve is called :

    • APitch angle
    • BPrime angle
    • CBase angle
    • DPressure angle
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The pressure angle is defined as the angle between the direction of the follower's motion and the normal to the pitch curve at the point of contact. (प्रेशर एंगल फॉलोअर की गति की दिशा और पिच कर्व के नॉर्मल के बीच का कोण होता है।)

  15. Q15

    Which of the following is a double disc cam, that has two disc being keyed together and are in constant touch with the two rollers of a follower ?

    • AConjugate cam
    • BRadial cam
    • CSpiral cam
    • DSpherical cam
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    A conjugate cam consists of two cams keyed to the same shaft that maintain constant contact with two rollers of a follower to provide a positive drive. (कंजुगेट कैम में दो डिस्क होते हैं जो एक ही शाफ्ट पर लगे होते हैं और फॉलोअर के दो रोलर्स के साथ निरंतर संपर्क में रहते हैं।)

  16. Q16

    Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 20 Nm. The torque transmitted by the gear is :

    • A6 Nm
    • B20 Nm
    • C40 Nm
    • D60 Nm
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Torque is proportional to the number of teeth: Torque_gear = Torque_pinion * (Teeth_gear / Teeth_pinion) = 20 * (120 / 40) = 60 Nm. (टॉर्क दांतों की संख्या के समानुपाती होता है: गियर टॉर्क = पिनियन टॉर्क * (गियर दांत / पिनियन दांत) = 20 * 3 = 60 Nm।)

  17. Q17

    The velocity of the belt for maximum power is Where, T = maximum tension in belt m = mass of the belt in kg per metre length

    • A$\sqrt{\frac{T}{3m}}$
    • B$\sqrt{\frac{T}{4m}}$
    • C$\sqrt{\frac{T}{5m}}$
    • D$\sqrt{\frac{T}{6m}}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    For maximum power transmission in a belt, the velocity is given by v = sqrt(T/3m), where T is the maximum tension and m is the mass per unit length. This is derived by differentiating the power equation with respect to velocity and setting it to zero. अधिकतम शक्ति के लिए बेल्ट का वेग v = sqrt(T/3m) होता है।

  18. Q18

    The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2500 kg. The starting torque of the steam engine is 1500 N-m and may be assumed constant. The angular acceleration of the flywheel shall be

    • A0.6 rad/$sec^2$
    • B0.5 rad/$sec^2$
    • C0.4 rad/$sec^2$
    • D0.8 rad/$sec^2$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Angular acceleration (α) = Torque (τ) / Moment of Inertia (I). Here, I = mk² = 2500 * 1² = 2500 kg-m², and τ = 1500 N-m. Thus, α = 1500 / 2500 = 0.6 rad/sec². कोणीय त्वरण α = टॉर्क / जड़त्व आघूर्ण = 1500 / 2500 = 0.6 rad/sec² है।

  19. Q19

    In a governor if the equilibrium speed is constant for all radii of rotation of balls, the governor is

    • Aisochronous
    • Bstable
    • Cinertia
    • Dunstable
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    A governor is said to be isochronous when the equilibrium speed remains constant regardless of the radius of rotation of the balls. जब गेंदों की घूर्णन त्रिज्या के सभी मानों के लिए संतुलन गति स्थिर रहती है, तो गवर्नर को आइसोक्रोनस (isochronous) कहा जाता है।

  20. Q20

    The rotor of a ship rotates in clockwise direction when viewed from the stern and the ship takes a left turn. The effect of the gyroscopic couple acting on it will be

    • Ato raise the bow and stern
    • Bto lower the bow and stern
    • Cto raise the bow and lower the stern
    • Dto lower the bow and raise the stern
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    For a rotor rotating clockwise when viewed from the stern, a left turn creates a gyroscopic couple that tends to raise the bow and lower the stern. जब जहाज का रोटर स्टर्न से देखने पर दक्षिणावर्त (clockwise) घूमता है और जहाज बाएं मुड़ता है, तो जाइरोस्कोपिक कपल धनुष (bow) को ऊपर उठाता है और स्टर्न (stern) को नीचे करता है।

  21. Q21

    If for a screw, $\alpha$ is helix angle, $\phi$ is friction angle and $\mu$ is coefficient of friction then the condition for the screw to be self locking is

    • A$\alpha > \phi$
    • B$\phi > \alpha$
    • C$\mu > \tan \alpha$
    • D$\mu = \text{cosec } \alpha$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    For a screw to be self-locking, the friction angle (φ) must be greater than the helix angle (α). This ensures that the friction is sufficient to prevent the screw from rotating back under the applied load. (स्व-लॉकिंग के लिए, घर्षण कोण φ हेलिक्स कोण α से अधिक होना चाहिए।)

  22. Q22

    For the system shown in figure, if stiffness $k_1 = 2000$ N/m; $k_2 = 1000$ N/m, $k_3 = 2000$ N/m; $k_4 = k_5 = 500$ N/m, the effective stiffness of the system shall be

    • A5250 N/m
    • B333.3 N/m
    • C1000 N/m
    • D1500 N/m
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Assuming a configuration where k1, k2, and k3 are in series and k4 and k5 are in parallel, and these two groups are then in parallel: k_eq = 1/(1/2000 + 1/1000 + 1/2000) + (500 + 500) = 500 + 1000 = 1500 N/m. (प्रभावी कठोरता की गणना के लिए स्प्रिंग्स के श्रेणी और समानांतर संयोजन का उपयोग किया जाता है।)

  23. Q23

    The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to static force is termed as

    • ADamping factor
    • BDamping coefficient
    • CMagnification factor
    • DLogarithmic decrement
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The magnification factor (or amplification factor) is defined as the ratio of the maximum dynamic displacement of a forced vibration system to the static deflection caused by the same force. (मैग्निफिकेशन फैक्टर जबरन कंपन के अधिकतम विस्थापन और स्थिर बल के कारण विक्षेपण का अनुपात है।)

  24. Q24

    In a spring-mass-damper system subjected to harmonic excitation, the phase angle at resonance is :

    • A
    • B45°
    • C90°
    • D180°
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In a spring-mass-damper system, at resonance (where the excitation frequency equals the natural frequency), the phase angle between the excitation force and the resulting displacement is 90°. (अनुनाद पर, उत्तेजना बल और विस्थापन के बीच का फेज कोण 90° होता है।)

  25. Q25

    The efficiency of a screw jack is given by ______, where $\alpha$ is helix angle and $\phi$ is angle of friction

    • A$\frac{\tan(\alpha + \phi)}{\tan \alpha}$
    • B$\frac{\tan \alpha}{\tan(\alpha + \phi)}$
    • C$\frac{\tan(\alpha - \phi)}{\tan \alpha}$
    • D$\frac{\tan \alpha}{\tan(\alpha - \phi)}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The efficiency of a screw jack is defined as the ratio of the work output to the work input, which simplifies to tan α / tan(α + φ), where α is the helix angle and φ is the angle of friction. / स्क्रू जैक की दक्षता कार्य आउटपुट और कार्य इनपुट के अनुपात के रूप में दी जाती है, जो tan α / tan(α + φ) होती है।

  26. Q26

    The natural frequency of an undamped vibrating system is 100 rad/s. A damper with a damping factor of 0.8 is introduced into the system. Find the frequency of vibration of the damped system (in rad/s).

    • A60
    • B75
    • C80
    • D100
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The damped natural frequency is calculated as ωd = ωn * sqrt(1 - ζ²). Given ωn = 100 and ζ = 0.8, ωd = 100 * sqrt(1 - 0.64) = 100 * 0.6 = 60 rad/s. / डैम्प्ड नेचुरल फ्रीक्वेंसी की गणना ωd = ωn * sqrt(1 - ζ²) से की जाती है, जिससे उत्तर 60 rad/s आता है।

  27. Q27

    In an under-damped vibration system, the logarithmic decrement represents :

    • ARatio of successive amplitudes
    • BFrequency of oscillation
    • CPhase angle
    • DEnergy loss per cycle
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Logarithmic decrement is defined as the natural logarithm of the ratio of any two successive amplitudes in an under-damped system. / लॉगरिथमिक डिक्रीमेंट को अंडर-डैम्प्ड सिस्टम में किन्हीं दो क्रमिक आयामों (successive amplitudes) के अनुपात के प्राकृतिक लघुगणक के रूप में परिभाषित किया गया है।

  28. Q28

    In a vibration isolation system, if $w/w_n > \sqrt{2}$, then for all the values of the damping factors, the transmissibility will be

    • AGreater than unity
    • BEqual to unity
    • CLess than unity
    • DZero
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In vibration isolation, when the frequency ratio r = ω/ωn > √2, the transmissibility is always less than 1, meaning the system effectively isolates the vibration. / वाइब्रेशन आइसोलेशन में, जब फ्रीक्वेंसी अनुपात r = ω/ωn > √2 होता है, तो ट्रांसमिसिबिलिटी हमेशा 1 से कम होती है।

  29. Q29

    The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection of the shaft from the axis of rotation becomes ______ is known as critical or whirling speed.

    • AZero
    • BMinimum
    • CMaximum
    • DInfinite
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Critical or whirling speed is the rotational speed at which the shaft's natural frequency is matched, causing the deflection to theoretically become infinite due to resonance. क्रिटिकल या व्हर्लिंग स्पीड वह घूर्णन गति है जिस पर शाफ्ट की प्राकृतिक आवृत्ति मेल खाती है, जिससे रेजोनेंस के कारण विक्षेपण सैद्धांतिक रूप से अनंत हो जाता है।

  30. Q30

    Which of the following would reduce the tendency of knocking in I.C. Engine?

    • AHigher self-ignition temperature of the fuel and a higher preflame reactivity
    • BLower self-ignition temperature of the fuel and a lower preflame reactivity
    • CHigher self-ignition temperature of the fuel and a lower preflame reactivity
    • DLower self-ignition temperature of the fuel and a higher preflame reactivity
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    To reduce knocking, the fuel should have a higher self-ignition temperature and lower preflame reactivity to prevent premature auto-ignition of the end-gas. नॉकिंग को कम करने के लिए, ईंधन का स्व-प्रज्वलन तापमान अधिक और प्रीफ्लेम प्रतिक्रियाशीलता कम होनी चाहिए ताकि एंड-गैस का समय से पहले स्वतः प्रज्वलन न हो।

  31. Q31

    The ignition delay in a CI engine is the time between :

    • AEnd of injection and end of combustion
    • BStart of injection and visible flame
    • CStart of injection and start of combustion
    • DStart of compression and start of ignition
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Ignition delay in a Compression Ignition (CI) engine is defined as the time interval between the start of fuel injection and the actual start of combustion. सीआई इंजन में इग्निशन डिले ईंधन इंजेक्शन की शुरुआत और दहन की वास्तविक शुरुआत के बीच के समय अंतराल को कहा जाता है।

  32. Q32

    Which property of diesel fuel most affects the starting of vehicle in cold weather ?

    • ACetane number
    • BFlash point
    • CAuto-ignition temperature
    • DPour point
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The pour point is the lowest temperature at which diesel fuel continues to flow; below this temperature, wax crystals form, making it difficult to start the vehicle in cold weather. पोर पॉइंट वह न्यूनतम तापमान है जिस पर डीजल ईंधन बहता रहता है; इस तापमान से नीचे, मोम के क्रिस्टल बन जाते हैं, जिससे ठंडे मौसम में वाहन शुरू करना कठिन हो जाता है।

  33. Q33

    The principal objective of supercharging in an I.C. engine is to

    • Aeliminate the need for a carburettor
    • Bdecrease exhaust gas temperature only
    • Clower fuel cetane or octane requirement
    • Dincrease volumetric efficiency
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Supercharging increases the density of the air intake, allowing more air-fuel mixture to enter the cylinder, which increases the volumetric efficiency and power output. सुपरचार्जिंग हवा के सेवन के घनत्व को बढ़ाती है, जिससे सिलेंडर में अधिक हवा-ईंधन मिश्रण प्रवेश कर पाता है, जिससे वॉल्यूमेट्रिक दक्षता और पावर आउटपुट बढ़ जाता है।

  34. Q34

    Which type of lubrication method is not used in wet sump systems ?

    • ASplash lubrication
    • BPressure lubrication
    • CMist lubrication
    • DCombination of splash and pressure
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Mist lubrication is typically used in two-stroke engines or specific industrial bearings, whereas wet sump systems utilize splash, pressure, or a combination of both. मिस्ट लुब्रिकेशन आमतौर पर टू-स्ट्रोक इंजन या विशिष्ट औद्योगिक बेयरिंग में उपयोग किया जाता है, जबकि वेट सम्प सिस्टम स्प्लैश, प्रेशर या दोनों के संयोजन का उपयोग करते हैं।

  35. Q35

    In the "Perfect Scavenging" process the incoming fresh charge

    • Amixes completely with residual gases
    • Bremains separate and pushes products ahead of it
    • Cshort-circuits straight to exhaust
    • Dburns partially during transfer
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    In perfect scavenging, the fresh charge displaces the exhaust gases by pushing them out of the cylinder without any mixing between the two. परफेक्ट स्कैवेंजिंग में, फ्रेश चार्ज एग्जॉस्ट गैसों को बिना किसी मिश्रण के सिलेंडर से बाहर धकेल कर उन्हें विस्थापित कर देता है।

  36. Q36

    The role of thermostat in a cooling system is to

    • AMix oil and coolant
    • BRegulate coolant flow based on temperature
    • CIncrease radiator pressure
    • DCool the oil
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The thermostat acts as a valve that regulates the flow of coolant to the radiator, ensuring the engine reaches and maintains its optimal operating temperature. थर्मोस्टेट एक वाल्व की तरह काम करता है जो रेडिएटर में कूलेंट के प्रवाह को नियंत्रित करता है, जिससे यह सुनिश्चित होता है कि इंजन अपने इष्टतम ऑपरेटिंग तापमान तक पहुँच जाए और उसे बनाए रखे।

  37. Q37

    A 4-stroke engine has a brake power of 15 kW and consumes 1.8 kg of fuel per hour. Calculate the brake specific fuel consumption (BSFC).

    • A8.33 kWh/kg
    • B0.10 kg/kWh
    • C0.12 kg/kWh
    • D3.18 kWh/kg
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    BSFC is calculated as fuel consumption per hour divided by brake power: 1.8 kg/h / 15 kW = 0.12 kg/kWh. BSFC का मान ईंधन की खपत को ब्रेक पावर से विभाजित करके निकाला जाता है।

  38. Q38

    What are the effects on the emission after adding exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) in a diesel engine ?

    • ANOx decreases; HC and particulates increase
    • BNOx increases; CO decreases
    • CNOx and soot both decrease
    • DHC decreases; CO$_2$ increases
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    EGR reduces peak combustion temperature, which significantly lowers NOx emissions, but it often leads to an increase in HC and particulate matter due to lower combustion efficiency. EGR दहन तापमान को कम करता है जिससे NOx घटता है लेकिन HC और कण बढ़ जाते हैं।

  39. Q39

    One tonne of refrigeration is conventionally taken as

    • A105 kJ/min
    • B150 kJ/min
    • C210 kJ/min
    • D3.5 kJ /min
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    One tonne of refrigeration (TR) is approximately 3.517 kW, which equals 3.517 kJ/s. Multiplying by 60 seconds gives approximately 211 kJ/min, making 210 kJ/min the closest option. एक टन प्रशीतन लगभग 210 kJ/min के बराबर होता है।

  40. Q40

    A Carnot refrigerator operates between 270 K and 310 K. What is its COP ?

    • A6.75
    • B7.75
    • C6.25
    • D5.75
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The COP of a Carnot refrigerator is given by TL / (TH - TL). Calculation: 270 / (310 - 270) = 270 / 40 = 6.75. कार्नोट रेफ्रिजरेटर का COP सूत्र TL / (TH - TL) द्वारा निकाला जाता है।

  41. Q41

    Subcooling of liquid refrigerant before throttling in an actual Vapour Compression Refrigeration Cycle results in :

    • ADecreased COP
    • BIncreased compressor work
    • CIncreased refrigerating effect
    • DDecreased evaporator pressure
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Subcooling reduces the enthalpy of the refrigerant before it enters the evaporator, which increases the refrigerating effect (the amount of heat absorbed from the space). सबकूलिंग के कारण रेफ्रिजरेंट की एन्थैल्पी कम हो जाती है, जिससे रेफ्रिजरेशन प्रभाव बढ़ जाता है।

  42. Q42

    Which of the following is not the effect of decreasing evaporator temperature in vapour compression cycle ?

    • AIncrease in refrigeration effect
    • BIncrease in the specific volume of suction vapour
    • CDecrease in volumetric efficiency
    • DIncrease in compressor work
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Decreasing the evaporator temperature increases the pressure ratio, which increases compressor work and specific volume while decreasing volumetric efficiency and the refrigeration effect. इवेपोरेटर तापमान कम करने से रेफ्रिजरेशन प्रभाव घटता है, बढ़ता नहीं है।

  43. Q43

    Match List-I (Refrigerant) with List-II (Chemical Names) and choose the correct option List - I A. R-11 B. R-12 C. R-22 D. R-114 List - II i. Dichloro-difluoro methane ii. Trichloro-monofluoro methane iii. Monochloro difluoro methane iv. Tetra-fluoro dichloroethane

    • Aii iii i iv
    • Bi ii iii iv
    • Ciii i ii iv
    • Dii i iii iv
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    R-11 is Trichloro-monofluoro methane (ii), R-12 is Dichloro-difluoro methane (i), R-22 is Monochloro difluoro methane (iii), and R-114 is Tetra-fluoro dichloroethane (iv). यह रेफ्रिजरेंट्स के सही रासायनिक नाम हैं।

  44. Q44

    Which refrigerant is widely used in ice plants ?

    • AR-12
    • BR-13
    • CR-21
    • DAmmonia
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Ammonia is widely used in large-scale industrial refrigeration and ice plants due to its excellent thermodynamic properties and low cost. अमोनिया का उपयोग इसके उच्च ताप-निकासी गुणों के कारण आइस प्लांट में व्यापक रूप से किया जाता है।

  45. Q45

    Which component is absent in a vapour absorption refrigeration system ?

    • ACondenser
    • BEvaporator
    • CAbsorber
    • DCompressor
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the compressor is replaced by an absorber, a pump, and a generator. Therefore, the compressor is the component that is absent. वेपर एब्जॉर्प्शन सिस्टम में कंप्रेसर की जगह एब्जॉर्बर, पंप और जनरेटर का उपयोग किया जाता है।

  46. Q46

    Which of the following equation describes the relation between Sensible heat factor (SHF) and θ, where θ is the slope of the SHF line on the psychrometric chart ?

    • ASHF = 1/(1 - tan θ)
    • BSHF = 1 + tan θ
    • CSHF = 1/(1 + tan θ)
    • DSHF = 1 - tan θ
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The Sensible Heat Factor (SHF) is the ratio of sensible heat to total heat. If tan θ represents the ratio of latent heat to sensible heat (the slope on the psychrometric chart), then SHF = 1 / (1 + tan θ). SHF सेंसिबल हीट और कुल हीट का अनुपात है, और tan θ लेटेंट हीट और सेंसिबल हीट के अनुपात को दर्शाता है।

  47. Q47

    Best suitable air speed at which occupants remain comfortable is

    • A1 m/min
    • B15 m/min
    • C150 m/min
    • D1500 m/min
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    For human comfort, the ideal air velocity is typically around 0.15 to 0.25 m/s. Converting 0.25 m/s to m/min gives 0.25 * 60 = 15 m/min. मानव आराम के लिए हवा की आदर्श गति आमतौर पर 0.15 से 0.25 मीटर/सेकंड होती है, जो 15 मीटर/मिनट के बराबर है।

  48. Q48

    In sensible cooling, which of the following parameter decreases ?

    • ADry bulb temperature
    • BSpecific humidity
    • CRelative humidity
    • DDew point temperature
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Sensible cooling is a process where the temperature of the air is reduced without any change in its moisture content (specific humidity). Thus, only the dry bulb temperature decreases. सेंसिबल कूलिंग वह प्रक्रिया है जिसमें नमी की मात्रा बदले बिना हवा के तापमान को कम किया जाता है, जिससे केवल ड्राई बल्ब तापमान घटता है।

  49. Q49

    Dry-bulb, wet-bulb and dew-point temperatures coincide only when air is

    • Aunsaturated
    • Bsaturated
    • Csuper-heated
    • Dsub-cooled
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    When air is saturated (100% relative humidity), no evaporation occurs from the wet bulb, causing the dry-bulb, wet-bulb, and dew-point temperatures to be identical. जब हवा संतृप्त होती है, तो वाष्पीकरण नहीं होता है, जिससे शुष्क-बल्ब, गीले-बल्ब और ओस-बिंदु तापमान समान हो जाते हैं।

  50. Q50

    Toe-in is defined as the condition when :

    • AThe front edges of the front wheels are closer than the rear edges
    • BThe front edges of the front wheels are farther apart than the rear edges
    • CRear wheels are closer than front wheels
    • DWheels are inclined inward at the top
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Toe-in is the alignment condition where the front edges of the front wheels are closer to each other than the rear edges when viewed from above. टो-इन वह स्थिति है जब सामने के पहियों के अगले किनारे पिछले किनारों की तुलना में एक-दूसरे के अधिक करीब होते हैं।

  51. Q51

    Which of the following is MacPherson Strut Assembly of Front Suspension System ?

    • ADouble wishbone suspension system
    • BSingle wishbone suspension system
    • CParallel and Equal wishbone suspension system
    • DSpring Damper suspension system
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The MacPherson strut is a type of independent suspension that eliminates the upper control arm and uses a single lower wishbone, thus it is a single wishbone suspension system. मैकफर्सन स्ट्रट एक स्वतंत्र सस्पेंशन है जो ऊपरी कंट्रोल आर्म को हटा देता है और सिंगल लोअर विशबोन का उपयोग करता है।

  52. Q52

    The primary circuit in a battery ignition system consists of :

    • AHigh tension lead, Spark plug, rotor arm, distributor
    • BBattery, ignition switch, primary winding, contact breaker
    • CDistributor cap, high-tension wires, spark plug
    • DMagneto, condenser, cam
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The primary circuit in a battery ignition system is the low-voltage circuit consisting of the battery, ignition switch, primary winding of the coil, and the contact breaker. बैटरी इग्निशन सिस्टम में प्राइमरी सर्किट कम वोल्टेज वाला सर्किट होता है जिसमें बैटरी, इग्निशन स्विच, प्राइमरी वाइंडिंग और कॉन्टैक्ट ब्रेकर शामिल होते हैं।

  53. Q53

    In a simple stage gas turbine plant ,if $T_1$ is the minimum temperature and $T_3$ is the maximum temperature then what is the work ratio in terms of pressure ratio, $r_p$

    • A1 - $\left(\frac{T_3}{T_1}\right) r_p^{\frac{\gamma-1}{\gamma}}$
    • B1 - $\left(\frac{T_1}{T_3}\right) r_p^{\frac{\gamma-1}{\gamma}}$
    • C1 - $\left(\frac{T_1}{T_3}\right) r_p^{\frac{\gamma-1}{2\gamma}}$
    • D1 - $\left(\frac{T_1}{T_3}\right) r_p^{\frac{1}{\gamma}}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The work ratio of a gas turbine is defined as the ratio of net work to gross work, which simplifies to 1 - (T₁/T₃) * rp^((γ-1)/γ). Option B is the closest representation of this thermodynamic relationship, assuming the exponent is (γ-1)/γ.

  54. Q54

    Which of the following is incorrect for gas turbine power plant ?

    • AGas turbine power plant is smaller in size as compared to an equivalent steam power plant.
    • BGas turbine power plant is smaller in weight as compared to an equivalent steam power plant.
    • CGas turbine power plant requires less water as compared to a condensing steam power plant.
    • DThe initial cost and operating cost of the Gas turbine power plant is higher than an equivalent steam power plant.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Gas turbine power plants generally have a lower initial capital cost compared to steam power plants due to the absence of boilers and condensers, making the statement that both initial and operating costs are higher incorrect.

  55. Q55

    A diesel engine develops 400 H.P. to overcome friction and delivers 2000 BHP. Find the Mechanical efficiency.

    • A80%
    • B83%
    • C20%
    • D17%
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Mechanical efficiency is the ratio of Brake Horse Power (BHP) to Indicated Horse Power (IHP). IHP = BHP + Friction Power = 2000 + 400 = 2400 HP; thus, Efficiency = 2000/2400 ≈ 83.3%.

  56. Q56

    The maximum (peak) demand on a thermal power plant of 60 MW capacity is 50 MW. The loads having maximum demands of 25 MW, 20 MW, 8 MW and 5 MW are connected to the power station. Determine Demand factor for the plant.

    • A1.16
    • B0.16
    • C0.14
    • D0.86
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Demand factor is the ratio of the maximum demand on the power station to the sum of individual maximum demands. Demand Factor = 50 / (25 + 20 + 8 + 5) = 50 / 58 ≈ 0.86.

  57. Q57

    Which of the following is NOT considered a desirable characteristic for a modern steam-power station ?

    • AHigh overall thermal efficiency
    • BCapability to burn coal with considerable ash content
    • CLow water requirement per kWh generated
    • DHigh specific fuel consumption
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    High specific fuel consumption means more fuel is required to produce a unit of energy, which indicates low efficiency. A modern power station aims for low specific fuel consumption to be economical. (उच्च विशिष्ट ईंधन खपत का अर्थ है कि प्रति इकाई ऊर्जा के लिए अधिक ईंधन की आवश्यकता होती है, जो अवांछनीय है।)

  58. Q58

    Why are zirconium alloys favoured as structural material in advanced reactors ?

    • AHigh gamma shielding
    • BLow neutron absorption
    • CHigh neutron absorption
    • DHigh electrical conductivity
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Zirconium alloys are used because they have a very low neutron absorption cross-section, allowing neutrons to pass through to the fuel without being captured. (ज़िरकोनियम मिश्र धातुओं का उपयोग किया जाता है क्योंकि उनका न्यूट्रॉन अवशोषण क्रॉस-सेक्शन बहुत कम होता है, जिससे न्यूट्रॉन बिना अवशोषित हुए ईंधन तक पहुँच पाते हैं।)

  59. Q59

    Which of the following is expressly named as a moderator material alongside graphite and heavy water ?

    • ALead
    • BBeryllium
    • CBoron carbide
    • DZircaloy
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Beryllium is a lightweight element that effectively slows down fast neutrons, making it a suitable moderator alongside graphite and heavy water. (बेरिलियम एक हल्का तत्व है जो तेज़ न्यूट्रॉन को प्रभावी ढंग से धीमा करता है, जिससे यह ग्रेफाइट और भारी पानी के साथ एक उपयुक्त मॉडरेटर बन जाता है।)

  60. Q60

    Which of the following is not desirable by moderator used in nuclear reactor ?

    • AModerator should have high thermal conductivity
    • BModerator should be unstable under heat and radiation
    • CModerator should provide good resistance to corrosion
    • DModerator should be able to slow down neutrons
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    A moderator must be stable under intense heat and radiation to maintain its structural integrity and function safely. Instability would lead to reactor failure. (एक मॉडरेटर को अपनी संरचनात्मक अखंडता बनाए रखने और सुरक्षित रूप से कार्य करने के लिए तीव्र ताप और विकिरण के तहत स्थिर होना चाहिए।)

  61. Q61

    Kaplan turbines are most suitable for :

    • ALow head and high discharge
    • BHigh head and low discharge
    • CMedium head and medium flow
    • DVery high head with small flow
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Kaplan turbines are axial flow reaction turbines specifically designed for low head and high discharge conditions. काप्लान टर्बाइन अक्षीय प्रवाह प्रतिक्रिया टर्बाइन हैं जिन्हें विशेष रूप से कम हेड और उच्च डिस्चार्ज स्थितियों के लिए डिज़ाइन किया गया है।

  62. Q62

    Which of the following is the critical value of cavitation factor ? where $H_a$ = Atmospheric pressure head in meter of water, $H_v$ = Vapour pressure in meter of water corresponding to the water temperature, H = Working head of turbine and h = Height of turbine outlet above tailrace level in metres.

    • A($H_a - H_v - h$)/H
    • B($H_v - H_a - h$)/H
    • C(h - $H_a - H_v$)/H
    • D($H_a - H_v + h$)/H
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The critical cavitation factor (Thoma's cavitation factor) is given by the formula (Ha - Hv - h)/H, where Ha is atmospheric pressure head, Hv is vapor pressure head, h is suction head, and H is the working head. क्रिटिकल कैविटेशन फैक्टर (थोमा का कैविटेशन फैक्टर) सूत्र (Ha - Hv - h)/H द्वारा दिया जाता है।

  63. Q63

    In power plant, the Load factor is the ratio of :

    • AAverage load to connected load
    • BMaximum demand to connected load
    • CAverage load to maximum demand
    • DInstalled capacity to maximum demand
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Load factor is defined as the ratio of the average load over a specified period to the maximum demand occurring in that period. लोड फैक्टर को एक निर्दिष्ट अवधि के दौरान औसत लोड और उस अवधि में होने वाली अधिकतम मांग के अनुपात के रूप में परिभाषित किया गया है।

  64. Q64

    Base load power plants generally have :

    • ALow capital cost and high fuel cost
    • BHigh fuel cost and high flexibility
    • CLow operating cost and continuous supply of the load
    • DIntermittent operation and poor efficiency
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Base load power plants are designed to operate continuously at a constant output to meet the minimum load requirements, typically characterized by low operating costs. बेस लोड पावर प्लांट न्यूनतम लोड आवश्यकताओं को पूरा करने के लिए निरंतर आउटपुट पर संचालित होने के लिए डिज़ाइन किए गए हैं, जिनकी विशेषता आमतौर पर कम परिचालन लागत होती है।

  65. Q65

    A point is subjected to three equal tensile stresses ($\sigma$) which are mutually perpendicular. The Poisson's ratio and Young's modulus are v and E respectively. The strain in direction of stress is

    • A$\frac{\sigma}{E} + \frac{2v\sigma}{E}$
    • B$\frac{\sigma}{E} - \frac{2v\sigma}{E}$
    • C$\frac{\sigma}{E} - \frac{v\sigma}{E}$
    • D$\frac{\sigma}{E} + \frac{3v\sigma}{E}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    According to generalized Hooke's law, the strain in one direction is given by ε = (1/E)[σx - ν(σy + σz)]. Since σx = σy = σz = σ, the strain becomes ε = (σ/E) - (2νσ/E). तनाव की दिशा में विकृति का सूत्र ε = (σ/E) - (2νσ/E) होता है।

  66. Q66

    Total area under the stress-strain curve is termed as

    • AModulus of Hardness
    • BModulus of Toughness
    • CModulus of Elasticity
    • DModulus of Rigidity
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The total area under the stress-strain curve up to the point of fracture represents the energy absorbed per unit volume, which is defined as the Modulus of Toughness. स्ट्रेस-स्ट्रेन कर्व के नीचे का कुल क्षेत्रफल 'मॉड्यूल ऑफ टफनेस' कहलाता है।

  67. Q67

    The point of contra flexure is a point where;

    • AShear force changes sign
    • BBending moment changes sign
    • CShear force is maximum
    • DBending moment is maximum
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The point of contraflexure is the location in a beam where the bending moment changes its sign, indicating a change in the direction of curvature. कॉन्ट्रा फ्लेक्स्योर वह बिंदु है जहाँ बेंडिंग मोमेंट का चिन्ह बदलता है।

  68. Q68

    A cantilever of length L carries a point load W at its free end. The downward deflection at the free end will be equal to ______. Where E is modulus of elasticity & I is area moment of inertia

    • A$\frac{WL^3}{8EI}$
    • B$\frac{WL^3}{3EI}$
    • C$\frac{5WL^3}{384EI}$
    • D$\frac{WL^3}{48EI}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    For a cantilever beam with a point load W at the free end, the maximum downward deflection is given by the standard formula δ = WL³/3EI. एक कैंटिलीवर बीम के मुक्त सिरे पर बिंदु भार W के लिए अधिकतम विक्षेपण WL³/3EI होता है।

  69. Q69

    In power transmission shafts, the polar moment of inertia of shaft has been doubled. What torque in relation to the original torque will then be required to produce the same angle of twist ?

    • AOne-Fourth
    • BOne-Half
    • CDouble
    • DSame
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The angle of twist is given by $\theta = TL/GJ$. If the polar moment of inertia $J$ is doubled while $\theta, L,$ and $G$ remain constant, the torque $T$ must also be doubled to maintain the same angle of twist. (ट्विस्ट का कोण $\theta = TL/GJ$ होता है। यदि $J$ को दोगुना किया जाता है, तो समान $\theta$ के लिए टॉर्क $T$ को भी दोगुना करना होगा।)

  70. Q70

    The crippling load according to Euler's theory of long column, when one end of column is fixed and other end is free is equal to ______ Where E is modulus of Elasticity, I is area moment of inertia and l is length of column.

    • A4$\pi^2$ EI / $l^2$
    • B$\pi^2$ EI / $4l^2$
    • C$\pi^2$ EI / $l^2$
    • D2$\pi^2$ EI / $l^2$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    For a column with one end fixed and the other free, the effective length is $2l$. Substituting this into Euler's formula $P_{cr} = \pi^2 EI/L_{eff}^2$ results in $P_{cr} = \pi^2 EI/(2l)^2 = \pi^2 EI/4l^2$. (एक सिरा फिक्स्ड और दूसरा फ्री होने पर प्रभावी लंबाई $2l$ होती है। इसे यूलर सूत्र में रखने पर $\pi^2 EI/4l^2$ प्राप्त होता है।)

  71. Q71

    The fatigue or endurance limit of a material is defined as :

    • AThe maximum stress that a material can withstand without yielding under static loading.
    • BThe maximum amplitude of completely reversed stress that a standard specimen can sustain for an unlimited number of cycles without fatigue failure.
    • CThe stress corresponding to fracture during tensile testing.
    • DThe maximum compressive stress a material can bear without buckling.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The endurance limit is defined as the maximum amplitude of completely reversed stress that a material can withstand for an infinite number of cycles without fatigue failure. (एंड्योरेंस लिमिट वह अधिकतम स्ट्रेस एम्प्लिट्यूड है जिसे कोई सामग्री बिना फेल हुए अनंत चक्रों तक सहन कर सकती है।)

  72. Q72

    Two shafts A and B are made up of same material. The diameter of shaft B is twice that of shaft A. The ratio of torque transmitted by shaft A to that of shaft B shall be

    • A1/2
    • B1/4
    • C1/8
    • D1/16
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The torque transmitted by a shaft is proportional to the cube of its diameter ($T \propto d^3$). Given $d_B = 2d_A$, the ratio $T_A/T_B = (d_A/d_B)^3 = (1/2)^3 = 1/8$. (शाफ्ट द्वारा प्रेषित टॉर्क उसके व्यास के घन के समानुपाती होता है। चूंकि $d_B = 2d_A$ है, इसलिए अनुपात $T_A/T_B = (1/2)^3 = 1/8$ होगा।)

  73. Q73

    Which of the following is not an advantage of clamp coupling?

    • AEasy to assemble and dismantle
    • BSuitable for shock loads
    • CCan be easily removed without shifting shaft in axial direction
    • DHas small diametral dimensions as compared to flange coupling
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Clamp couplings are designed for ease of assembly and compact size, but they are generally not suitable for heavy shock loads compared to robust flange couplings. क्लैंप कपलिंग को असेंबल करना आसान होता है और इनका आकार छोटा होता है, लेकिन ये भारी शॉक लोड के लिए उपयुक्त नहीं होते हैं।

  74. Q74

    Which of the following statement is incorrect for taper roller bearings?

    • AIt is necessary to use two taper roller bearings on the shaft to balance the axial force
    • BIt is necessary to adjust the actual position of the bearing with preload
    • CTaper roller bearing is not affected by misalignment between the axes of the shaft and the housing bore
    • DTaper roller bearing consists of rolling elements in the form of a frustum of cone
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Taper roller bearings are very sensitive to misalignment between the axes of the shaft and the housing bore, which can lead to uneven loading and premature failure. टेपर रोलर बेयरिंग शाफ्ट और हाउसिंग के बीच मिसअलाइनमेंट के प्रति बहुत संवेदनशील होते हैं, जिससे बेयरिंग जल्दी खराब हो सकता है।

  75. Q75

    Which of the following is not a category of brakes?

    • ARim types with internal contracting shoe brake
    • BBand types brake
    • CDisk or axial types brakes
    • DRim types with external contracting shoe brake
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Disc brakes are radial brakes, not axial brakes; therefore, categorizing them as 'Disk or axial types' is technically incorrect. डिस्क ब्रेक रेडियल प्रकृति के होते हैं, अक्षीय (axial) नहीं, इसलिए यह श्रेणी गलत है।

  76. Q76

    In the formation of Lewis equation for toothed gearing, it is assumed that tangential tooth load acts on the

    • ATip of the tooth
    • BPitch point
    • CRoot of the tooth
    • DWhole face of the tooth
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    In the derivation of the Lewis equation, the gear tooth is treated as a cantilever beam and the tangential load is assumed to act at the tip of the tooth to calculate the maximum bending stress at the root. लुईस समीकरण में, गियर के दांत को एक कैंटिलीवर बीम माना जाता है और यह माना जाता है कि लोड दांत के सिरे (tip) पर कार्य करता है।

  77. Q78

    An important property of a dislocation is its ______, which indicates the extent of lattice displacement caused by the dislocation.

    • ABurger's Vector
    • BDegrees of freedom
    • CSpace lattice
    • DFibre reinforcement
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The Burgers vector is a vector that represents the magnitude and direction of the lattice distortion associated with a dislocation. (बर्गर वेक्टर एक विस्थापन द्वारा उत्पन्न जाली विरूपण के परिमाण और दिशा को दर्शाता है।)

  78. Q79

    Consider the following regarding their crystal structure - (a) Aluminium (b) Copper (c) Molybdenum (d) Zinc Which of these belong to face centered cubic (FCC) structure ?

    • A(a) and (b) only
    • B(a) and (c) only
    • C(b) and (c) only
    • D(a), (b) and (c) only
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Aluminium and Copper possess a face-centered cubic (FCC) structure, whereas Molybdenum is BCC and Zinc is HCP. (एल्युमीनियम और कॉपर में FCC संरचना होती है, जबकि मोलिब्डेनम BCC और जिंक HCP संरचना के होते हैं।)

  79. Q80

    Normalizing may be defined as heating the steel to ______ phase and cooling it in air.

    • APearlite
    • BFerrite
    • CCementite
    • DAustenit
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Normalizing involves heating the steel to the austenite phase (above the upper critical temperature) and then cooling it in still air to achieve a uniform grain structure. (नॉर्मलाइजिंग स्टील को ऑस्टेनाइट चरण तक गर्म करने और फिर एक समान दाने की संरचना प्राप्त करने के लिए हवा में ठंडा करने की प्रक्रिया है।)

  80. Q81

    A ______ phase diagram is obtained when two metals are completely soluble in the liquid state but either partly or completely insoluble in the solid state.

    • AMonotectic
    • BEutectic
    • CPeritectic
    • DEutectoid
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    A monotectic reaction occurs when a liquid phase transforms into a solid phase and another liquid phase upon cooling, which happens when components are miscible in the liquid state but immiscible in the solid state. (मोनोटेक्टिक प्रतिक्रिया तब होती है जब दो धातुएं तरल अवस्था में पूरी तरह घुलनशील होती हैं लेकिन ठोस अवस्था में नहीं।)

  81. Q82

    When a variation in hardness on the surface of a hardened steel is obtained, the defect is called as :-

    • AOxidation
    • BSoft Spots
    • COverheating
    • DQuench Cracking
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Soft spots are localized areas of lower hardness on the surface of a hardened steel part, often caused by uneven quenching or surface contaminants. (हार्डन स्टील की सतह पर कठोरता में भिन्नता या कम कठोरता वाले क्षेत्रों को 'सॉफ्ट स्पॉट्स' कहा जाता है।)

  82. Q83

    Stainless steels are highly resistant to corrosion in various environments, primarily due to the presence of which of the following alloying element ?

    • ANickel (Ni)
    • BChromium (Cr)
    • CMolybdenum (Mo)
    • DCarbon (C)
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Chromium is the primary alloying element that provides corrosion resistance by forming a thin, passive layer of chromium oxide on the surface. (क्रोमियम मुख्य मिश्र धातु तत्व है जो सतह पर क्रोमियम ऑक्साइड की एक निष्क्रिय परत बनाकर जंग प्रतिरोध प्रदान करता है।)

  83. Q84

    Which of the following phase of steel is NOT present in the Iron-Carbon phase diagram -

    • AFerrite
    • BCementite
    • CAustenite
    • DMartensite
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Martensite is a non-equilibrium phase formed by rapid quenching (non-diffusional transformation) and is therefore not present in the equilibrium Iron-Carbon phase diagram. (मार्टेंसाइट एक गैर-संतुलन चरण है जो तेजी से ठंडा करने पर बनता है, इसलिए यह आयरन-कार्बन संतुलन आरेख में नहीं होता है।)

  84. Q85

    ______ measurements are carried out with bevel protractor and sine bar.

    • AAngular
    • BLinear
    • CAngular and linear both
    • DNeither Angular nor Linear
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Bevel protractors and sine bars are precision instruments specifically used for measuring angles. बेवल प्रोट्रैक्टर और साइन बार का उपयोग कोणों (angles) को मापने के लिए किया जाता है।

  85. Q86

    In a limit gauge, which of the following statements is correct as per Taylor's Principle ?

    • AGO gauge should check maximum material condition.
    • BNO-GO gauge should check maximum material condition.
    • CGO gauge should check minimum material condition.
    • DNO-GO gauge is used to measure length.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    According to Taylor's Principle, the GO gauge should check the Maximum Material Condition (MMC) to ensure the part will fit. टेलर के सिद्धांत के अनुसार, GO गेज को अधिकतम सामग्री स्थिति (MMC) की जांच करनी चाहिए।

  86. Q87

    In a hole and shaft assembly, hole is specified as 30 +0.00 / -0.02 mm and shaft as 30 -0.02 / -0.05 mm. What is the allowance for this fit ?

    • A+ 0.07 mm
    • B+ 0.02 mm
    • C+ 0.04 mm
    • D0.00 mm
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Allowance is the minimum clearance or maximum interference. Here, Min Hole (29.98) - Max Shaft (30.02) = -0.04 mm, indicating a maximum interference of 0.04 mm. अलाउंस = न्यूनतम होल साइज - अधिकतम शाफ्ट साइज = 29.98 - 30.02 = -0.04 मिमी।

  87. Q88

    Chills are used in casting to :

    • AIncrease the solidification time
    • BFacilitate easy removal of the pattern
    • CObtain directional solidification
    • DAvoid blowholes
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Chills are metal inserts placed in the mold to increase the cooling rate in specific areas, thereby promoting directional solidification. चिल का उपयोग दिशात्मक जमना (directional solidification) प्राप्त करने के लिए किया जाता है।

  88. Q89

    In CNC programming, absolute positioning and incremental positioning differs as

    • AAbsolute positioning defines the next location relative to the current location, while incremental positioning is with respect to the origin.
    • BBoth absolute and incremental positioning define positions relative to the origin.
    • CAbsolute positioning defines locations with respect to the origin, whereas incremental positioning defines locations relative to the current position.
    • DBoth absolute and incremental positioning define positions relative to the tool length.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Absolute positioning refers to coordinates measured from a fixed origin point, while incremental positioning refers to coordinates measured from the current tool position. / एब्सोल्यूट पोजिशनिंग एक निश्चित मूल बिंदु (origin) से मापी जाती है, जबकि इंक्रीमेंटल पोजिशनिंग वर्तमान टूल स्थिति से मापी जाती है।

  89. Q90

    What does the grade of grinding wheel indicate ?

    • AGrit size of abrasive particles
    • BHardness of abrasive material
    • CHardness of the grinding wheel
    • DSpeed at which the wheel can rotate
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The grade of a grinding wheel indicates the strength of the bond holding the abrasive grains, which is commonly referred to as the hardness of the wheel. / ग्राइंडिंग व्हील का ग्रेड उन एब्रेसिव कणों को पकड़ने वाले बॉन्ड की मजबूती को दर्शाता है, जिसे व्हील की कठोरता (hardness) कहा जाता है।

  90. Q91

    In which of the Milling operation several plain milling cutters of same or different diameters and width may be used at the same time for production of several different parallel horizontal surfaces on the workpieces ?

    • AGang Milling
    • BSide Milling
    • CFace Milling
    • DEnd Milling
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Gang milling involves using multiple milling cutters mounted on a single arbor to machine several parallel surfaces simultaneously. / गैंग मिलिंग में एक ही आर्बर पर कई मिलिंग कटर लगाए जाते हैं ताकि एक साथ कई समानांतर सतहों की मशीनिंग की जा सके।

  91. Q92

    Boring operation is primarily used to

    • ACreate external threads
    • BEnlarge an existing hole
    • CCut grooves on a shaft
    • DPerform surface finishing
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Boring is a machining process used to enlarge, straighten, or finish the interior of a hole that has already been drilled or cast. / बोरिंग एक मशीनिंग प्रक्रिया है जिसका उपयोग पहले से ड्रिल किए गए या कास्ट किए गए छेद को बड़ा करने या उसे फिनिश करने के लिए किया जाता है।

  92. Q93

    Broaching is also similar to _____ with multi-tooth tool that reciprocates to do the cutting.

    • AMilling
    • BSawing
    • CHoning
    • DLapping
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Broaching is similar to sawing because both processes utilize a multi-tooth tool that moves linearly (reciprocates) to remove material from the workpiece. ब्रोचिंग आरी चलाने (sawing) के समान है क्योंकि दोनों प्रक्रियाओं में वर्कपीस से सामग्री हटाने के लिए रैखिक रूप से चलने वाले बहु-दांत वाले उपकरण का उपयोग किया जाता है।

  93. Q94

    A very large nose radius in single point cutting tool may cause :

    • AReduced cutting force
    • BTool chatter
    • CImproved chip flow
    • DBetter cooling
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    A very large nose radius increases the contact area between the tool and the workpiece, which increases radial forces and often leads to tool chatter (vibrations). एक बहुत बड़ा नोज़ रेडियस टूल और वर्कपीस के बीच संपर्क क्षेत्र को बढ़ाता है, जिससे रेडियल बल बढ़ता है और अक्सर टूल चैटर (कंपन) होता है।

  94. Q95

    The fourth term of tool signature, under ASA system is

    • Aback rake angle
    • Bside rake angle
    • Cend relief angle
    • Dside relief angle
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Under the ASA (American Standards Association) system, the tool signature sequence is: back rake angle, side rake angle, end relief angle, and side relief angle. ASA सिस्टम के तहत, टूल सिग्नेचर का क्रम है: बैक रेक एंगल, साइड रेक एंगल, एंड रिलीफ एंगल और साइड रिलीफ एंगल।

  95. Q96

    Following type of chip formed when machining ductile materials at low temperature

    • Acontinuous
    • Bdiscontinuous
    • Ccontinuous with built up edge
    • Dno formation of chip
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    When machining ductile materials at low temperatures or speeds, high friction causes material to weld to the tool tip, forming a built-up edge (BUE). कम तापमान या गति पर लचीली सामग्रियों की मशीनिंग करते समय, उच्च घर्षण के कारण सामग्री टूल टिप पर वेल्ड हो जाती है, जिससे बिल्ट-अप एज (BUE) बनता है।

  96. Q97

    Shear angle $\varphi$ is defined as the angle between shear plane and ____.

    • ARake face
    • BDirection of tool travel
    • CNormal to rake face
    • DChip flow line
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The shear angle (phi) is defined as the angle between the shear plane and the direction of tool travel (cutting velocity vector). शीयर कोण शीयर प्लेन और टूल की गति की दिशा के बीच का कोण होता है।

  97. Q98

    The main objective of using a flux in welding is to :

    • AIncrease temperature
    • BRemove heat quickly
    • CPrevent oxidation and remove impurities
    • DProvide filler material
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The primary purpose of flux in welding is to prevent the oxidation of the weld pool and to remove impurities by forming slag. वेल्डिंग में फ्लक्स का मुख्य उद्देश्य ऑक्सीकरण को रोकना और अशुद्धियों को हटाना है।

  98. Q99

    Where is the die block mounted in the assembly ?

    • AUpper shoe
    • BGuide posts
    • CLower shoe
    • DPunch holder
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In a standard press tool assembly, the punch is mounted on the upper shoe and the die block is mounted on the lower shoe. प्रेस टूल असेंबली में, डाई ब्लॉक को लोअर शू (lower shoe) पर लगाया जाता है।

  99. Q100

    If the output of a system is increased by 20% and the input is reduced by 20%, then the productivity of the system will :

    • Aincrease by 20%
    • Bincrease by 25%
    • Cincrease by 50%
    • Dremain unchanged
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Productivity = Output / Input. New Productivity = (1.2 * Output) / (0.8 * Input) = 1.5 * (Original Productivity), which is a 50% increase. उत्पादकता = आउटपुट / इनपुट। नई उत्पादकता = (1.2 आउटपुट) / (0.8 इनपुट) = 1.5 गुना, यानी 50% की वृद्धि।

  100. Q101

    The relationship between production and productivity :

    • AProduction and productivity are interchangeable terms.
    • BProduction is absolute; productivity is relative to input.
    • CProductivity increases only if production increases.
    • DProduction is always higher than productivity.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Production refers to the total volume of output (absolute), whereas productivity is the ratio of output to input (relative). उत्पादन कुल आउटपुट की मात्रा है, जबकि उत्पादकता इनपुट के सापेक्ष आउटपुट का अनुपात है।

  101. Q102

    A machine costs ₹ 50,000, and it depreciates at 20% per year. Using the declining balance method, what is its value at the end of 2 years ?

    • A₹ 30,000
    • B₹ 32,000
    • C₹ 36,000
    • D₹ 40,000
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Using the declining balance method: Year 1 value = 50,000 - 20% = 40,000; Year 2 value = 40,000 - 20% = 32,000. घटते शेष विधि का उपयोग करते हुए: पहले वर्ष का मूल्य = 40,000; दूसरे वर्ष का मूल्य = 32,000।

  102. Q103

    Which one of the following supply chain strategy is associated with just-in-time (JIT) or lean system :

    • Apush-based
    • Bpull-based
    • Cpush-pull
    • Dpush-push
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Just-in-Time (JIT) and lean systems are pull-based strategies where production is triggered by actual customer demand rather than forecasts. JIT और लीन सिस्टम पुल-आधारित रणनीतियाँ हैं जहाँ उत्पादन पूर्वानुमान के बजाय वास्तविक ग्राहक मांग द्वारा संचालित होता है।

  103. Q104

    An oil engine manufacturer purchases lubricants at the rate of ₹ 84 per piece from a vendor. The requirements of these lubricants are 900 per year. What should be the ordering quantity per order, if the cost per placement of an order is ₹ 32 and inventory carrying charges per rupee per year is 10 paise ?

    • A83 lubricants
    • B166 lubricants
    • C42 lubricants
    • D21 lubricants
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Using the EOQ formula: sqrt((2 * 900 * 32) / (0.10 * 84)) = sqrt(57600 / 8.4) ≈ 82.8, which rounds to 83. EOQ फॉर्मूला का उपयोग करते हुए: sqrt((2 * 900 * 32) / (0.10 * 84)) ≈ 83 लुब्रिकेंट्स।

  104. Q105

    If there are 2 jobs to be performed one at a time on 3 machines, where the order of machines for each job can vary, the total number of possible sequences is :

    • A2
    • B6
    • C8
    • D12
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    In a job shop scheduling scenario with 3 machines and 2 jobs, if the sequence of jobs can vary on each machine, there are 2! (2) possible sequences per machine. For 3 machines, the total number of possible sequences is 2^3 = 8. (3 मशीनों और 2 जॉब्स के लिए, प्रत्येक मशीन पर जॉब्स के 2! क्रम संभव हैं, इसलिए कुल क्रम 2^3 = 8 होंगे।)

  105. Q106

    Which of the following is essential output in an MRP system ?

    • AProduct structure (BOM) file of components which go into each end product
    • BOrder release data to CRP for load profiles
    • CInventory status file of on-hand items
    • DMPS of end items required
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    MRP (Material Requirements Planning) takes BOM, Inventory status, and MPS as inputs. Its primary outputs are planned order releases, which are then passed to CRP (Capacity Requirements Planning) to determine load profiles. (MRP सिस्टम में BOM, इन्वेंट्री और MPS इनपुट होते हैं, जबकि ऑर्डर रिलीज डेटा इसका एक आवश्यक आउटपुट है जो CRP के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है।)

  106. Q107

    Which of the following is considered a micro motion study technique in Industrial Engineering ?

    • AWork Sampling
    • BString Diagram
    • CSIMO Chart
    • DGantt Chart
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    A SIMO (Simultaneous Motion) chart is a micro-motion study technique used to analyze the simultaneous activities of the left and right hands of an operator. (SIMO चार्ट एक माइक्रो-मोशन स्टडी तकनीक है जिसका उपयोग ऑपरेटर के बाएं और दाएं हाथों की एक साथ होने वाली गतिविधियों का विश्लेषण करने के लिए किया जाता है।)

  107. Q108

    For an activity in a PERT network, the optimistic time is 10 days, pessimistic time is 16 days, and most likely time is 13 days. The expected time (in days) and standard deviation (in days) of the activity are :

    • AExpected time = 13 and standard deviation = 2
    • BExpected time = 12 and standard deviation = 1
    • CExpected time = 14 and standard deviation = 2
    • DExpected time = 13 and standard deviation = 1
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Expected time (Te) = (a + 4m + b) / 6 = (10 + 4*13 + 16) / 6 = 78 / 6 = 13 days. Standard deviation (σ) = (b - a) / 6 = (16 - 10) / 6 = 1 day. (अपेक्षित समय Te = (10 + 52 + 16)/6 = 13 दिन और मानक विचलन σ = (16-10)/6 = 1 दिन है।)

  108. Q109

    Which of the following is used to identify part families in Group Technology ?

    • AProduction flow analysis
    • BMaterials Requirement Planning (MRP)
    • CEnterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
    • DBill of materials
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Production flow analysis (PFA) is a key technique used in Group Technology to identify part families by analyzing the routing of parts through the factory. प्रोडक्शन फ्लो एनालिसिस (PFA) ग्रुप टेक्नोलॉजी में एक प्रमुख तकनीक है जिसका उपयोग फैक्ट्री के माध्यम से भागों की रूटिंग का विश्लेषण करके पार्ट फैमिली की पहचान करने के लिए किया जाता है।

  109. Q110

    Which of the following is a type of standardization, which means designing a product in parts ?

    • AModular design
    • BValue design
    • CConcurrent design
    • DRobust design
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Modular design involves designing a product as a collection of independent modules, which allows for standardization and easy replacement of parts. मॉड्यूलर डिज़ाइन में उत्पाद को स्वतंत्र मॉड्यूल के संग्रह के रूप में डिज़ाइन करना शामिल है, जो मानकीकरण और भागों के आसान प्रतिस्थापन की अनुमति देता है।

  110. Q111

    According to patent law, which of the following is NOT a necessary requirement for an invention to be patented ?

    • AThe invention must be useful to someone in some context.
    • BThe invention must be novel, meaning it is not publicly known through products, publications, or prior patents.
    • CThe invention must be nonobvious, meaning it should not be obvious to someone skilled in the field.
    • DThe invention must be commercially successful at the time of application.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The legal requirements for a patent are novelty, utility, and non-obviousness; commercial success is not a requirement for an invention to be patented. पेटेंट के लिए कानूनी आवश्यकताएं नवीनता, उपयोगिता और गैर-स्पष्टता हैं; किसी आविष्कार को पेटेंट कराने के लिए व्यावसायिक सफलता आवश्यक नहीं है।

  111. Q112

    While conducting product analysis which of the following is categorized under economic analysis ?

    • AAesthetic aspect analysis
    • BDurability aspects analysis
    • CBreak-even analysis
    • DDependability aspects analysis
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Break-even analysis is a financial tool used to determine the point where total cost equals total revenue, making it a part of economic analysis. ब्रेक-ईवन विश्लेषण एक वित्तीय उपकरण है जिसका उपयोग उस बिंदु को निर्धारित करने के लिए किया जाता है जहाँ कुल लागत कुल राजस्व के बराबर होती है, जिससे यह आर्थिक विश्लेषण का हिस्सा बन जाता है।

  112. Q113

    The arrival rate at a service counter follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 4 per hour, and the service rate is 5 per hour. What is the probability that the system is idle ?

    • A0.20
    • B0.25
    • C0.50
    • D0.80
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The probability that the system is idle (P0) in an M/M/1 queue is given by P0 = 1 - (λ/μ). Here, λ = 4 and μ = 5, so P0 = 1 - (4/5) = 1 - 0.8 = 0.20. सिस्टम के खाली होने की प्रायिकता P0 = 1 - (λ/μ) होती है, जो यहाँ 1 - 0.8 = 0.20 है।

  113. Q114

    Which of the following defines Zero sum game?

    • AA game in which the gains of one player are the losses of other player.
    • BA game in which the algebraic sum of gains of both players is positive.
    • CA game in which the algebraic sum of gains of both players is negative.
    • DA game in which the gains of one player is more than the losses of other player.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    A zero-sum game is a situation in which one player's gain is exactly equal to the other player's loss, making the total algebraic sum of gains and losses zero. जीरो-सम गेम वह खेल है जिसमें एक खिलाड़ी का लाभ दूसरे खिलाड़ी की हानि के बराबर होता है।

  114. Q115

    In game theory, if a game has no saddle point, then the optimal strategy is determined by:

    • ADominance Rule
    • BMinimax Theorem
    • CMixed Strategy
    • DNash Equilibrium
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    When a game does not have a saddle point, players cannot rely on a single pure strategy; instead, they use a mixed strategy to maximize their expected payoff. जब किसी गेम में सैडल पॉइंट नहीं होता है, तो इष्टतम रणनीति 'मिश्रित रणनीति' (Mixed Strategy) द्वारा निर्धारित की जाती है।

  115. Q116

    In operation research while comparing Simplex problem of Maximisation case and Minimisation case, which of the following is not related to Minimisation case problem?

    • AThe relationship between variables and constraints is linear.
    • BThe coefficients of variables may be positive or negative or zero.
    • CStructural constraints are needed.
    • DTo convert inequalities into equations, slack variables are added.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    In minimization problems, constraints are typically of the 'greater than or equal to' (≥) type, which require the subtraction of surplus variables and addition of artificial variables, rather than adding slack variables (which are used for ≤ constraints). मिनिमाइजेशन समस्याओं में आमतौर पर '≥' बाधाएं होती हैं जिनमें सरप्लस वेरिएबल्स घटाए जाते हैं, न कि स्लैक वेरिएबल्स जोड़े जाते हैं।

  116. Q117

    In operation research, if certain sets of rules (which may not necessarily lead to an optimal solution) are applied consistently to simplify or facilitate the solution of a problem, the model is known as:

    • ALinear Programming Model
    • BSimulation Model
    • CHeuristic Model
    • DDynamic Programming Model
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    A Heuristic Model uses 'rules of thumb' or simplified sets of rules to find a satisfactory solution quickly, although it does not guarantee an optimal solution. ह्यूरिस्टिक मॉडल 'रूल ऑफ थंब' का उपयोग करते हैं ताकि समस्या का समाधान जल्दी निकाला जा सके, भले ही वह इष्टतम न हो।

  117. Q118

    With m constraints and n variables, the maximum number of basic solutions to the standard linear program is finite and is given by :-

    • A$\binom{n}{m} = \frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}$
    • B$\binom{n}{m} = \frac{m!}{n!(n-m)!}$
    • C$\binom{n}{m} = \frac{n!}{m!(m-n)!}$
    • D$\binom{m}{n} = \frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The maximum number of basic solutions is determined by the number of ways to choose m basic variables from n total variables, which is given by the combination formula nCm = n! / (m!(n-m)!). बेसिक समाधानों की अधिकतम संख्या n चरों में से m बेसिक चरों को चुनने के तरीकों द्वारा निर्धारित की जाती है, जो nCm = n! / (m!(n-m)!) है।

  118. Q119

    In linear programming in operation research, an alternate optimal solution is indicated whenever there exists a non-basic variable whose relative profit is ______ in the optimal tableau.

    • APositive value
    • BZero
    • CNegative value
    • DPositive and negative both
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    In the optimal simplex tableau, if a non-basic variable has a relative profit (reduced cost) of zero, it indicates that an alternative optimal solution exists. इष्टतम सिम्प्लेक्स तालिका में, यदि किसी गैर-बेसिक चर का सापेक्ष लाभ शून्य होता है, तो यह दर्शाता है कि एक वैकल्पिक इष्टतम समाधान मौजूद है।

  119. Q120

    In regenerative Rankine cycle, some steam is extracted from the turbine to:

    • APreheat feedwater
    • BCool the condenser
    • CIncrease the entropy of steam
    • DIncrease boiler pressure
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    In a regenerative Rankine cycle, steam is extracted from the turbine to preheat the feedwater before it enters the boiler, which increases the cycle's thermal efficiency. रीजेनरेटिव रेंकिन चक्र में, बॉयलर में प्रवेश करने से पहले फीडवाटर को पहले से गर्म करने के लिए टर्बाइन से भाप निकाली जाती है, जिससे चक्र की तापीय दक्षता बढ़ जाती है।

  120. Q121

    If a reversible heat pump working between two reservoirs at 400 K and 300 K removes 300 kJ of heat from the cold space, how much heat does it deliver to the hot reservoir ?

    • A400 kJ
    • B700 kJ
    • C500 kJ
    • D600 kJ
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    For a reversible heat pump, the ratio of heat transfer to temperature is constant: QH/TH = QL/TL. Therefore, QH = QL * (TH/TL) = 300 kJ * (400 K / 300 K) = 400 kJ. एक प्रतिवर्ती हीट पंप के लिए, QH = QL * (TH/TL) होता है, जिससे उत्तर 400 kJ आता है।

  121. Q122

    Consider the following : (a) Temperature (b) Viscosity (c) Thermal conductivity (d) Enthalpy Which of these properties of a system are intensive property ?

    • A(a) and (b)
    • B(a), (b) and (c)
    • C(a), (c) and (d)
    • D(a), (b), (c) and (d)
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Intensive properties are independent of the mass of the system. Temperature, viscosity, and thermal conductivity are intensive, whereas enthalpy is an extensive property as it depends on the amount of matter. तापमान, श्यानता और तापीय चालकता गहन गुण (intensive properties) हैं, जबकि एन्थैल्पी एक विस्तृत गुण (extensive property) है।

  122. Q124

    For the same maximum and minimum temperatures, which cycle will have the highest specific work output ?

    • ACarnot cycle
    • BIdeal Rankine cycle
    • CModified Rankine cycle
    • DBinary vapour cycle
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The Carnot cycle is the most efficient theoretical cycle operating between two temperature limits, providing the maximum possible work output for the given temperature range. दिए गए अधिकतम और न्यूनतम तापमान के लिए, कार्नोट चक्र उच्चतम विशिष्ट कार्य आउटपुट प्रदान करता है।

  123. Q125

    A mixture contains 0.3 kg water and 0.7 kg dry steam. What is the dryness fraction ?

    • A0.30
    • B0.50
    • C0.70
    • D0.80
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Dryness fraction (x) is the ratio of the mass of dry steam to the total mass of the mixture. Here, x = 0.7 / (0.3 + 0.7) = 0.70. शुष्कता अंश (dryness fraction) शुष्क भाप के द्रव्यमान और मिश्रण के कुल द्रव्यमान का अनुपात होता है।

  124. Q126

    The Effectiveness of heat exchanger is defined as

    • AActual heat transfer/maximum possible heat transfer
    • BMaximum heat transfer/Actual heat transfer
    • CHeat capacity ratio
    • DNTU $\times$ $C_{min}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The effectiveness of a heat exchanger is defined as the ratio of the actual heat transfer rate to the maximum possible heat transfer rate. हीट एक्सचेंजर की प्रभावशीलता वास्तविक ताप स्थानांतरण और अधिकतम संभव ताप स्थानांतरण के अनुपात के रूप में परिभाषित की जाती है।

  125. Q127

    Assertion (A) : A counter flow heat exchanger is thermodynamically more efficient than the parallel flow type. Reason (R) : A counter flow heat exchanger has a lower LMTD for the same temperature conditions. Select appropriate option :

    • ABoth (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    • C(A) is true but (R) is false.
    • D(A) is false but (R) is true.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Assertion (A) is true because counter-flow exchangers allow for higher heat recovery. Reason (R) is false because a counter-flow heat exchanger actually has a higher LMTD (Log Mean Temperature Difference) than a parallel-flow one for the same temperature limits. कथन (A) सही है, लेकिन कारण (R) गलत है क्योंकि काउंटर-फ्लो हीट एक्सचेंजर का LMTD अधिक होता है।

  126. Q128

    Match List - I (Surface with Orientations) with List - II (Equivalent Emissivity) and select the correct answer : List - I A. Infinite large parallel planes B. Body 1 completely enclosed by body 2 but body 1 is very small C. Two concentric spheres D. Infinitely long concentric cylinders List - II (a) $\epsilon_1$ (b) $\frac{1}{\frac{1}{\epsilon_1} + \frac{1}{\epsilon_2} - 1}$ (c) $\frac{1}{\frac{1}{\epsilon_1} + \left(\frac{1-\epsilon_2}{\epsilon_2}\right)\left(\frac{r_1}{r_2}\right)}$ (d) $\frac{1}{\frac{1}{\epsilon_1} + \left(\frac{1-\epsilon_2}{\epsilon_2}\right)\left(\frac{r_1}{r_2}\right)^2}$

    • A(a) (c) (d) (b)
    • B(b) (a) (d) (c)
    • C(b) (a) (c) (d)
    • D(b) (c) (d) (a)
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Matching based on radiation heat transfer formulas: Parallel planes match (b), small body enclosed by large matches (a), concentric spheres match (d) due to the (r1/r2)^2 term, and concentric cylinders match (c) due to the (r1/r2) term. विकिरण ताप स्थानांतरण सूत्रों के अनुसार सही मिलान A-(b), B-(a), C-(d), D-(c) है।

  127. Q129

    Lambert's cosine law applies to :

    • ASpecular surface
    • BTransparent surface
    • CDiffuse surface
    • DReflecting surface
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Lambert's cosine law states that the radiant intensity from an ideal diffuse radiator is proportional to the cosine of the angle between the direction of the observer and the surface normal. It specifically applies to diffuse surfaces. लैम्बर्ट का कोसाइन नियम एक विसरित सतह (diffuse surface) से प्रकाश के उत्सर्जन या परावर्तन का वर्णन करता है।

  128. Q130

    Assertion (A) : If the heat flux in pool boiling over a horizontal surface is increased above the critical heat flux, the temperature difference between the surface and liquid decreases sharply. Reason (R) : With increasing heat flux beyond the value corresponding to the critical heat flux, a stage is reached when the rate of formation of bubbles is so high that they start to coalesce and blanket the surface with a vapour film.

    • ABoth (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    • C(A) is true but (R) is false.
    • D(A) is false but (R) is true.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    When heat flux exceeds the critical heat flux, a vapor film blankets the surface (Reason is true), which significantly increases thermal resistance and causes the surface temperature to increase sharply, not decrease (Assertion is false). क्रिटिकल हीट फ्लक्स के ऊपर, एक वाष्प फिल्म बनती है जिससे थर्मल प्रतिरोध बढ़ जाता है और सतह का तापमान तेजी से बढ़ता है, घटता नहीं है।

  129. Q131

    Heat transfer coefficients for a vapour condensing on a surface can be increased by promoting

    • Afilm condensation
    • Bdropwise condensation
    • Crolling action
    • Dconvection
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Dropwise condensation results in much higher heat transfer coefficients than film condensation because the liquid forms droplets that fall off, preventing the formation of a continuous insulating liquid film. ड्रॉपवाइज कंडेनसेशन, फिल्म कंडेनसेशन की तुलना में बहुत अधिक हीट ट्रांसफर गुणांक प्रदान करता है क्योंकि यह एक निरंतर इंसुलेटिंग लिक्विड फिल्म के निर्माण को रोकता है।

  130. Q132

    Which dimensionless number represents the ratio of kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity ?

    • AReynolds number
    • BPrandtl number
    • CNusselt number
    • DGrashoff number
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The Prandtl number (Pr) is a dimensionless number defined as the ratio of momentum diffusivity (kinematic viscosity) to thermal diffusivity. प्रैंड्टल नंबर को मोमेंटम डिफ्यूज़िविटी (किनेमैटिक विस्कोसिटी) और थर्मल डिफ्यूज़िविटी के अनुपात के रूप में परिभाषित किया गया है।

  131. Q133

    In a regenerative Rankine cycle with multiple bleedings, increasing the number of feedwater heaters (ideal, no losses assumed) would theoretically result in :

    • AIncreased cycle efficiency and increased net work output
    • BDecreased cycle efficiency and increased specific steam consumption
    • CIncreased cycle efficiency but decreased net work output
    • DDecreased cycle efficiency but improved condenser heat rejection
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Increasing the number of feedwater heaters increases the average temperature of heat addition, which improves the thermal efficiency. However, bleeding more steam from the turbine reduces the mass flow rate expanding to the condenser, thereby decreasing the net work output. / फीडवाटर हीटर्स की संख्या बढ़ाने से हीट एडिशन का औसत तापमान बढ़ता है जिससे दक्षता बढ़ती है, लेकिन टर्बाइन से स्टीम ब्लीडिंग के कारण नेट वर्क आउटपुट कम हो जाता है।

  132. Q134

    For an infinitely long fin, temperature at the tip is :

    • AEqual to surrounding fluid temperature
    • BEqual to base temperature
    • CHalf of base temperature
    • DMaximum possible value
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    For an infinitely long fin, the temperature at the tip asymptotically approaches the temperature of the surrounding fluid as the length tends to infinity. / एक अनंत लंबाई वाले फिन के लिए, टिप पर तापमान धीरे-धीरे आसपास के तरल पदार्थ के तापमान के बराबर हो जाता है।

  133. Q135

    An electric current cable is to be covered by a uniform sheathing of plastic ($k = 0.2\text{ W/mK}$). The convective film coefficient between the surface of the plastic sheathing and surrounding air is $15\text{ W/m}^2\text{K}$. Calculate critical thickness of insulation.

    • A13.33 mm
    • B75 mm
    • C26.66 mm
    • D150 mm
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The critical radius of insulation is calculated as r_c = k/h. Given k = 0.2 W/mK and h = 15 W/m²K, r_c = 0.2 / 15 = 0.01333 m = 13.33 mm. / इंसुलेशन की क्रिटिकल रेडियस r_c = k/h सूत्र से निकाली जाती है। दिए गए मानों के अनुसार, r_c = 0.2 / 15 = 13.33 मिमी।

  134. Q136

    The Radiation Intensity emitted by a black body is governed by

    • APlanck's law
    • BKirchhoff's law
    • CWien's Displacement law
    • DFourier's law
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Planck's law describes the spectral density of electromagnetic radiation emitted by a black body in thermal equilibrium at a given temperature. / प्लैंक का नियम एक निश्चित तापमान पर थर्मल संतुलन में ब्लैक बॉडी द्वारा उत्सर्जित विद्युत चुंबकीय विकिरण के स्पेक्ट्रल घनत्व का वर्णन करता है।

  135. Q137

    For a composite wall consisting of three layers in series, which of the following statements is correct regarding the temperature drops across each layer ?

    • ALargest drop occurs across the layer with the highest conductivity.
    • BLargest drop occurs across the layer with the lowest resistance.
    • CLargest drop occurs across the layer with the highest resistance.
    • DTemperature drops are equal across all layers.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    For layers in series, the heat flow (Q) is constant. Since ΔT = Q × R, the temperature drop is directly proportional to the thermal resistance; thus, the largest drop occurs across the layer with the highest resistance. / श्रेणीक्रम में, तापमान में गिरावट तापीय प्रतिरोध के समानुपाती होती है, इसलिए उच्चतम प्रतिरोध वाली परत में सबसे अधिक गिरावट होती है।

  136. Q138

    A composite wall has 3 layers each of 0.2 K / W thermal resistance. What is the total resistance ?

    • A0.1 K / W
    • B0.2 K / W
    • C0.6 K / W
    • D0.3 K / W
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    For a composite wall with layers in series, the total thermal resistance is the sum of the individual resistances: R_total = 0.2 + 0.2 + 0.2 = 0.6 K/W. / श्रेणीक्रम में कुल तापीय प्रतिरोध व्यक्तिगत प्रतिरोधों का योग होता है: 0.2 + 0.2 + 0.2 = 0.6 K/W।

  137. Q139

    When the insulation thickness (r₁) is less than the critical radius (r), what happens to heat loss ?

    • AIt decreases
    • BIt remains constant
    • CIt increases
    • DIt becomes zero
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    When the outer radius is less than the critical radius, adding insulation increases the surface area, which reduces convective resistance more than it increases conductive resistance, thereby increasing heat loss. / जब बाहरी त्रिज्या क्रांतिक त्रिज्या से कम होती है, तो इंसुलेशन जोड़ने से सतह क्षेत्र बढ़ता है, जिससे ऊष्मा हानि बढ़ जाती है।

  138. Q140

    The water at the inlet of the reaction turbine possess

    • Akinetic energy only
    • Bpressure energy only
    • Cboth kinetic energy and pressure energy
    • Dneither of kinetic energy and pressure energy
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In a reaction turbine, the water at the inlet of the runner possesses both pressure energy and kinetic energy, both of which are utilized to produce work. / एक रिएक्शन टर्बाइन में, रनर के प्रवेश द्वार पर पानी में दबाव ऊर्जा और गतिज ऊर्जा दोनों होती हैं।

  139. Q141

    The specific speed of the turbine is the speed of

    • Ageometrically similar turbine of unit power
    • Ba turbine running at its design speed
    • Cturbine having unit speed
    • Dturbine with maximum efficiency
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Specific speed is defined as the speed of a geometrically similar turbine that would produce unit power under a unit head. विशिष्ट गति एक ज्यामितीय रूप से समान टर्बाइन की गति है जो इकाई हेड के तहत इकाई शक्ति उत्पन्न करती है।

  140. Q142

    Which of the following is correct statement ?

    • AFor radially outward flow machines the fluid loses its static head.
    • BFor a radially inward flow machine the fluid gains its static head.
    • CIn radial flow pumps or compressors the flow is always directed radially outward.
    • DIn a radial flow turbine, flow is always directed radially outward.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In radial flow pumps or compressors, the fluid is accelerated from the center (eye) towards the outer periphery, making the flow radially outward. रेडियल फ्लो पंप या कंप्रेसर में, प्रवाह हमेशा केंद्र से बाहर की ओर (radially outward) निर्देशित होता है।

  141. Q143

    Which of the following is true for the blade outlet angle (β) of impeller blades of a centrifugal pump ?

    • AForward facing blades β > 90°
    • BRadial blades β > 90°
    • CBackward facing blades β > 90°
    • DBackward facing blades β = 90°
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    For backward curved blades in a centrifugal pump, the blade outlet angle $\beta$ is greater than $90^\circ$ when measured from the tangential direction. सेंट्रीफ्यूगल पंप के बैकवर्ड कर्व्ड ब्लेड के लिए, स्पर्शरेखीय दिशा से मापा गया ब्लेड आउटलेट कोण $\beta > 90^\circ$ होता है।

  142. Q144

    The function of casing in centrifugal pump is to

    • AConvert kinetic energy into pressure energy
    • BIncrease flow rate
    • CReduce friction
    • DDecrease NPSH
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The casing (volute) of a centrifugal pump is designed to gradually increase the flow area, which reduces the velocity and converts kinetic energy into pressure energy. सेंट्रीफ्यूगल पंप में केसिंग का मुख्य कार्य इम्पेलर से निकलने वाले द्रव की गतिज ऊर्जा को दबाव ऊर्जा में परिवर्तित करना है।

  143. Q145

    The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is defined as

    • ANs = N Q0.5/H1.25
    • BNs = N Q0.5/H2.5
    • CNs = N Q0.5/H0.75
    • DNs = N Q0.5/H1.5
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The specific speed (Ns) of a centrifugal pump is defined by the formula Ns = N Q^0.5 / H^0.75, where N is speed, Q is discharge, and H is head. सेंट्रीफ्यूगल पंप की विशिष्ट गति का सूत्र Ns = N Q^0.5 / H^0.75 होता है।

  144. Q146

    The percentage of power saved in overcoming friction in pipes by using air vessel in lines of single acting reciprocating pump is :

    • A84.8%
    • B92.3%
    • C48.4%
    • D33.4%
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    For a single-acting reciprocating pump, the use of an air vessel reduces the work done against friction by approximately 84.8%. सिंगल एक्टिंग रेसिप्रोकेटिंग पंप में एयर वेसल का उपयोग करने से घर्षण के विरुद्ध किया गया कार्य लगभग 84.8% कम हो जाता है।

  145. Q147

    The working of hydraulic Ram is based on

    • AThermodynamics
    • BBernoulli's equation
    • CWater hammer
    • DViscous flow
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    A hydraulic ram operates on the principle of the 'water hammer' effect, which converts the kinetic energy of a large flow of water into pressure to lift a small amount of water. हाइड्रोलिक रैम 'वॉटर हैमर' प्रभाव के सिद्धांत पर कार्य करता है।

  146. Q148

    Which equation represents the principle of conservation of mass in fluid flow ?

    • ABernoulli's equation
    • BContinuity equation
    • CEuler's equation
    • DNavier Stokes equation
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The continuity equation is a mathematical expression of the principle of conservation of mass for fluid flow. निरंतरता समीकरण (Continuity equation) द्रव प्रवाह में द्रव्यमान संरक्षण के सिद्धांत का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है।

  147. Q149

    The venturimeter is used to measure

    • AFlow through the pipe
    • BFlow through canal
    • CFlow through river
    • DFlow through dam
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    A venturimeter is a device used to measure the rate of flow (discharge) of a fluid flowing through a pipe. वेंचुरीमीटर का उपयोग पाइप के माध्यम से बहने वाले तरल के प्रवाह की दर को मापने के लिए किया जाता है।

  148. Q150

    "Intensity of pressure at a point in static fluid is equal in all directions" is related to

    • AHydrostatic law
    • BPascal's law
    • CContinuity equation
    • DBernoulli's equation
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Pascal's law states that the intensity of pressure at any point in a static fluid is equal in all directions. पास्कल का नियम बताता है कि स्थिर तरल में किसी भी बिंदु पर दबाव की तीव्रता सभी दिशाओं में समान होती है।