Veterinary Officer (Veterinary Deptt.) Exam - 2025

All VETERINARY OFFICER 2025 papers

Questions
150
Marks
150
Time
3h 10m
Per question
1
Wrong answer
-0.33
Not attempted
0

Published by the Rajasthan Public Service Commission on 27/04/2026.

  1. Q1

    The seat (Gaddi) of Nath Sect was established in Jaisalmer during the reign of which of the following rulers? / जैसलमेर में नाथ पंथ की गढ़ी निम्न में से किस शासक के समय स्थापित हुई?

    • AMaharawal Moolraj / महारावल मूलराज
    • BRawal Devraj / रावल देवराज
    • CRawal Bairsi / रावल बैरसी
    • DMaharawal Akhairaj / महारावल अखैराज
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why B

    The seat (Gaddi) of the Nath Sect in Jaisalmer was established during the reign of Rawal Devraj / जैसलमेर में नाथ पंथ की गढ़ी रावल देवराज के शासनकाल में स्थापित हुई थी।

  2. Q2

    Which cities of Rajasthan are related with the art of 'Koftagiri'? / राजस्थान के कौनसे शहर 'कोफ्तगिरी' कला से सम्बन्धित हैं?

    • AGanganagar and Barmer / गंगानगर और बाड़मेर
    • BPratapgarh and Banswara / प्रतापगढ़ और बाँसवाड़ा
    • CKota and Bikaner / कोटा और बीकानेर
    • DAlwar and Udaipur / अलवर और उदयपुर
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why D

    The art of 'Koftagiri', which involves inlaying gold or silver wire into iron objects, is prominently practiced in Alwar and Udaipur / कोफ्तगिरी कला अलवर और उदयपुर शहरों से संबंधित है।

  3. Q3

    Gorakh Malia is the place of Penance of which of the following folk deities? / गोरखा मालिया निम्न में से किस लोक देवता की तपोस्थली है?

    • AJasnath Ji / जसनाथ जी
    • BHarbhu Ji / हरबूजी
    • CDhanna Ji / धन्ना जी
    • DLaldas Ji / लालदास जी
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why B

    Gorakh Malia is the sacred place of penance and worship associated with the folk deity Harbhu Ji / गोरखा मालिया लोक देवता हरबूजी की तपोस्थली है।

  4. Q4

    In Rajasthan, the work of gold and silver wire on the edge of Turban was called as - / राजस्थान में, पगड़ी पर सोने और चाँदी के तारों से किनारीदार काम को कहा जाता था -

    • APamdi / पामड़ी
    • BDagla / डगला
    • CPeshwaz / पेशवाज
    • DMadeel / मदील
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why D

    In traditional Rajasthani culture, the intricate work of gold and silver wire done on the edge of a turban is called Madeel / राजस्थान में पगड़ी के किनारे पर सोने और चाँदी के तारों के काम को मदील कहा जाता था।

  5. Q5

    What is called the 'Lamchad' in the Kathak dance of Jaipur Gharana? / जयपुर घराने के कथक नृत्य में 'लमछड़' किसे कहा जाता है?

    • AFoot Movement / पद संचालन
    • BRhythmic Poetry / कवितांगी
    • CPresentation of Mythology / पौराणिक कथाओं का प्रस्तुतीकरण
    • DMiracle performance / चमत्कार प्रदर्शन
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why B

    In the Jaipur Gharana of Kathak dance, 'Lamchad' refers to rhythmic poetry or Kavitangi, where complex rhythmic patterns are interwoven with poetic verses. / जयपुर घराने के कथक नृत्य में 'लमछड़' कवितांगी (रिथमिक पोएट्री) को कहा जाता है, जिसमें तालबद्ध रचनाओं को काव्यात्मक रूप में प्रस्तुत किया जाता है।

  6. Q6

    Which God/Goddess is believed as the protector from evil spirits and wild animals with the Bhil Community? / किस देवी/देवता को भील जनजाति, बुरी आत्माओं और जंगली जानवरों से सुरक्षा प्रदान करने वाला/वाली मानती है?

    • AHanuman / हनुमान
    • BMahadev / महादेव
    • CGanesh / गणेश
    • DKalika / कालिका
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why D

    Goddess Kalika is traditionally worshipped and believed by the Bhil community to provide protection against evil spirits and wild animals. / भील जनजाति में कालिका देवी को बुरी आत्माओं तथा जंगली जानवरों से रक्षा करने वाली देवी के रूप में माना जाता है।

  7. Q7

    Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists - List-I (Sect) (A) Ramawat (B) Alakhiya (C) Rasik (D) Niranjani List-II (Originator) (i) Lalgiri (ii) Ramanand (iii) Swami Haridas (iv) Swami Agradas Code - (1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (3) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) (4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करते हुए सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए - सूची-I (सम्प्रदाय) (A) रामावत (B) अलखिया (C) रसिक (D) निरंजनी सूची-II (प्रवर्तक) (i) लालगिरी (ii) रामानन्द (iii) स्वामी हरिदास (iv) स्वामी अग्रदास कूट - (1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (3) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) (4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

    • A(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
    • B(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
    • C(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
    • D(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why B

    The correct matching of sects with their originators is: Ramawat by Ramanand (ii), Alakhiya by Lalgiri (i), Rasik by Swami Agradas (iv), and Niranjani by Swami Haridas (iii), which corresponds to option (2).

  8. Q8

    Which musical tradition was developed in Rajasthan under the influence of Vallabh Sect? / वल्लभ संप्रदाय के प्रभाव में राजस्थान में कौनसी संगीत परम्परा का विकास हुआ?

    • AGwalior Gharana / ग्वालियर घराना
    • BDarbari Sangeet / दरबारी संगीत
    • CHaveli Sangeet / हवेली संगीत
    • DRangeela Gharana / रंगीला घराना
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why C

    Under the influence of the Vallabh Sect (Pushtimarg), devotional music associated with temple worship known as Haveli Sangeet was developed in Rajasthan / वल्लभ संप्रदाय के प्रभाव से राजस्थान में हवेली संगीत परंपरा का विकास हुआ।

  9. Q9

    The Jain temple of Lodrava is dedicated to which of the following Jain Tirthankara? / लोद्रवा का जैन मन्दिर निम्न में से किस जैन तीर्थंकर को समर्पित है?

    • AParshvanath / पार्श्वनाथ
    • BChandra Prabhu / चन्द्र प्रभु
    • CPadma Prabhu / पदम प्रभु
    • DRishabhdev / ऋषभदेव
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why A

    The ancient Jain temple located in Lodrava (near Jaisalmer, Rajasthan) is historically and religiously dedicated to the 23rd Tirthankara, Lord Parshvanath. / लोद्रवा का प्रसिद्ध जैन मंदिर भगवान पार्श्वनाथ (23वें तीर्थंकर) को समर्पित है।

  10. Q10

    In which of the following district is the tourist place Balsamand located? / पर्यटक स्थल बालसमन्द निम्न में से किस जिले में स्थित है?

    • ARajsamand / राजसमन्द
    • BUdaipur / उदयपुर
    • CAlwar / अलवर
    • DJodhpur / जोधपुर
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why D

    Balsamand Lake and the associated tourist palace are located in the Jodhpur district of Rajasthan, known for its historic water reservoir and palace architecture. / बालसमन्द झील और पर्यटक स्थल राजस्थान के जोधपुर जिले में स्थित है।

  11. Q11

    Which of the following is not a membranophone (Avanaddha Vadya)? / निम्न में से कौनमसा अवनद्ध वाद्य नहीं है?

    • ADamama / दमामा
    • BMadal / मादल
    • CRawaj / रवाज
    • DGhera / घेरा
    • EQuestion not attempted / अनुत्तरित प्रश्न
    Why C

    Rawaj is a string instrument (Chordophone / Tata Vadya), whereas Damama, Madal, and Ghera are percussion instruments played by striking a membrane (Avanaddha Vadya). / रवाज एक तंतु वाद्य (तता वाद्य) है, जबकि दमामा, मादल और घेरा अवनद्ध (चर्म) वाद्य यंत्र हैं।

  12. Q12

    Which of the following statements are correct about 'Munhata Nainsi Ri Khyat'? (A) It is the later medieval Rajasthani poetry literature. (B) It contains a brief history of Kathiawar, Malwa and Bundelkhand. (C) It includes the tales of brave Rajasthani warriors. Choose the correct code - 'मुंहता नैणसी री ख्यात' के विषय में निम्नांकित में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं? (A) यह उत्तर मध्यकालीन राजस्थानी पद्य साहित्य है। (B) इसमें काठियावाड़, मालवा और बुंदेलखण्ड का संक्षिप्त इतिहास है। (C) इसमें राजस्थानी वीर योद्धाओं की गाथाएं संकलित हैं। सही कूट का चयन कीजिए -

    • A(1) (A), (B) and (C) / (1) (A), (B) एवं (C)
    • B(2) Only (A) and (B) / (2) केवल (A) एवं (B)
    • C(3) Only (A) and (C) / (3) केवल (A) एवं (C)
    • D(4) Only (B) and (C) / (4) केवल (B) एवं (C)
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    'Munhata Nainsi Ri Khyat' contains a historical account including brief details of regions like Kathiawar, Malwa, and Bundelkhand, and compiles accounts of brave warriors, making statements (B) and (C) correct. / 'मुंहता नैणसी री ख्यात' में काठियावाड़, मालवा और बुंदेलखण्ड का संक्षिप्त इतिहास तथा वीर योद्धाओं की गाथाएं मिलती हैं, जिससे कथन (B) और (C) सही हैं।

  13. Q13

    Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below - List-I (Form of Holi Festival Celebration) (A) Kodamar (B) Latthmar (C) Patharmar List-II (Place) (i) Shri Mahaveer ji (ii) Barmer (iii) Bhinay Code - (1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i) (2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii) (3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii) (4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii) सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करते हुए सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए - सूची-I (होली का त्योहार मनाने का स्वरूप) (A) कोड़ामार (B) लठ्ठमार (C) पत्थरमार सूची-II (स्थान) (i) श्री महावीर जी (ii) बाड़मेर (iii) भिनाय कूट - (1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i) (2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii) (3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii) (4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)

    • A(1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i)
    • B(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
    • C(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii)
    • D(4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    Kodamar Holi is celebrated in Bhinay (A-iii), Latthmar Holi is celebrated in Shri Mahaveer ji (B-i), and Patharmar Holi is celebrated in Barmer (C-ii), matching option (4). / कोड़ामार होली भिनाय में, लठ्ठमार होली श्री महावीर जी में और पत्थरमार होली बाड़मेर में खेली जाती है।

  14. Q14

    Which one of the following pair (Place - Palace) is not correctly matched? / निम्नांकित में से कौन सा युग्म (स्थान - महल) सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

    • A(1) Bikaner - Karan Mahal / बीकानेर - करण महल
    • B(2) Jodhpur - Anup Mahal / जोधपुर - अनूप महल
    • C(3) Udaipur - Jag Niwas / उदयपुर - जग निवास
    • D(4) Amer - Dalaram Bagh / आमेर - दलाराम बाग
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why B

    Anup Mahal is located in the Junagarh Fort of Bikaner, not in Jodhpur, making option B incorrectly matched. / अनूप महल बीकानेर के जूनागढ़ किले में स्थित है, जोधपुर में नहीं, इसलिए विकल्प (2) गलत सुमेलित है।

  15. Q15

    Which of the following word is also used for folk ballads in Rajasthan? / राजस्थान में लोक गाथाओं के लिए निम्न में से किस शब्द का भी प्रयोग किया जाता है?

    • A(1) Charchari / चर्चरी
    • B(2) Ramat / रामत
    • C(3) Raas / रास
    • D(4) Pawada / पवाड़ा
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    In Rajasthan, the term 'Pawada' is used to describe folk ballads that narrate the heroic deeds and glory of regional deities and folk heroes. / राजस्थान में लोक गाथाओं (बैलड्स) या वीर गाथाओं के लिए 'पवाड़ा' शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है।

  16. Q16

    The remains of the 'altar', built as per the scriptural method as a memory of the ancient Yajna, are found in which fort? / प्राचीन यज्ञ की स्मृति के रूप में, शास्त्रोक्त विधि से निर्मित 'वेदी' के अवशेष किस दुर्ग में मिलते हैं?

    • A(1) Jalore / जालोर
    • B(2) Chittor / चित्तौड़
    • C(3) Kumbhalgarh / कुम्भलगढ़
    • D(4) Amer / आमेर
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why B

    The remains of the ancient altar built according to scriptural methods for a yajna are found in the historic Chittorgarh Fort. / प्राचीन यज्ञ की स्मृति में शास्त्रोक्त विधि से निर्मित 'वेदी' के अवशेष चित्तौड़गढ़ दुर्ग में मिलते हैं।

  17. Q17

    'Anavat' ornament is worn on which part of the body by the women? / 'अणवट' आभूषण महिलाओं द्वारा शरीर के किस अंग पर धारण किया जाता है?

    • A(1) Head / सिर
    • B(2) Ear / कान
    • C(3) Wrist / कलाई
    • D(4) Feet / पैर
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    The 'Anavat' (अणवट) is a traditional ornament worn by women on their feet, specifically on the toes. / 'अणवट' महिलाओं द्वारा पैरों की उंगलियों (या पैर) में पहना जाने वाला एक पारंपरिक आभूषण है।

  18. Q18

    In which dialect is the major literature of Dadu Panth composed? / दादू पंथ का प्रमुखतया साहित्य कौनसी बोली में लिपिबद्ध है?

    • A(1) Dhundhari / ढूंढाड़ी
    • B(2) Mewari / मेवाड़ी
    • C(3) Mewati / मेवाती
    • D(4) Vagri / वागड़ी
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why A

    The major literature of the Dadu Panth is predominantly composed in the Dhundhari dialect, which is widely spoken in the Jaipur and surrounding region. / दादू पंथ का अधिकांश प्रमुख साहित्य ढूंढाड़ी बोली में लिपिबद्ध किया गया है, जो इस क्षेत्र की मुख्य भाषा है।

  19. Q19

    What is the 'Banwara' ritual or custom in Alwar? / अलवर में 'बनवारा' की रस्म या रिवाज क्या है?

    • A(1) The groom is offered food by his relatives/women after applying ubtan and bathing / वर को संबंधियों/महिलाओं द्वारा उबटन व स्नानोपरांत भोजन करवाना
    • B(2) Chaak Pujan / चाक पूजन
    • C(3) Janeu Sanskar / जनेऊ संस्कार
    • D(4) Tying "Sehra" on the head / सिर पर "सेहरा" बांधा जाना
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why A

    In Alwar, the 'Banwara' ritual involves relatives and women offering food to the groom after he takes a bath following the application of ubtan. / अलवर जिले में 'बनवारा' रस्म के अंतर्गत वर को उबटन लगाने और स्नान कराने के पश्चात संबंधियों तथा महिलाओं द्वारा भोजन करवाया जाता है।

  20. Q20

    The largest tribal fair of Beneshwar is held on which "tithi" according to the Hindu Calendar? / आदिवासियों का सबसे बड़ा बेणेश्वर मेला हिन्दू पंचांग के अनुसार किस "तिथि" को आयोजित होता है?

    • A(1) Kartik Purnima / कार्तिक पूर्णिमा
    • B(2) Bhadrapad Shukla Chaturthi / भाद्रपद शुक्ल चतुर्थी
    • C(3) Chaitra Krishna Saptami / चैत्र कृष्ण सप्तमी
    • D(4) Magh Purnima / माघ पूर्णिमा
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    The Beneshwar Fair, known as the Kumbh of tribals, is held annually on Magh Purnima (माघ पूर्णिमा) at the confluence of Som and Mahi rivers in Dungarpur, Rajasthan. / बेणेश्वर मेला आदिवासियों का सबसे बड़ा मेला है, जो हर साल माघ पूर्णिमा के दिन सोम और माही नदियों के संगम पर आयोजित होता है।

  21. Q21

    सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए तथा नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनिए - सूची-I (बकरी की नस्ल) - सूची-II (गृह क्षेत्र) (A) गुजरी - (i) बाड़मेर (B) मारवाड़ी - (ii) भरतपुर (C) जखराना - (iii) जयपुर (D) बरबरी - (iv) अलवर कूट - Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below - List-I (Breed of Goat) - List-II (Home Tract) (A) Gujari - (i) Barmer (B) Marwari - (ii) Bharatpur (C) Jakhrana - (iii) Jaipur (D) Barbari - (iv) Alwar Code -

    • A(A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
    • B(A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
    • C(A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
    • D(A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    According to the home tracts of goat breeds in Rajasthan, Gujari is associated with Barmer, Marwari with Bharatpur (or Jodhpur region mapped appropriately), Jakhrana with Alwar, and Barbari with Jaipur/Bharatpur regions as per standard pairings. / गोवंश एवं बकरी की नस्लों के वर्गीकरण के अनुसार गुजरी बाड़मेर, मारवाड़ी, जखराना अलवर तथा बरबरी से सही सुमेलित विकल्प (D) है।

  22. Q22

    राजस्थान की निम्न वन्यजीव प्रजातियों पर विचार कीजिए - (A) भारतीय गिद्ध (B) कृष्ण मृग (C) उड़न गिलहरी (D) गोडावण उपरोक्त में से कौनसी वन्यजीव प्रजाति/प्रजातियाँ गंभीर संकटग्रस्त है/हैं? कूट - Consider the following wildlife species of Rajasthan - (A) Indian Vulture (B) Black Buck (C) Flying Squirrel (D) Great Indian Bustard Which of the above wildlife species is/are critically endangered? Code -

    • A(A), (C) और (D) / (A), (C) and (D)
    • B(C) और (D) / (C) and (D)
    • C(A) और (D) / (A) and (D)
    • Dकेवल (B) / Only (B)
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    Among the listed wildlife species, the Indian Vulture (भारतीय गिद्ध) and the Great Indian Bustard (गोडावण) are categorized as critically endangered species facing severe threats to their survival. / भारतीय गिद्ध और गोडावण (Great Indian Bustard) गंभीर रूप से संकटग्रस्त (critically endangered) वन्यजीव प्रजातियों में शामिल हैं।

  23. Q23

    जनगणना 2011 के अनुसार, राजस्थान के अधिकतम तथा न्यूनतम महिला साक्षरता वाले जिले क्रमशः हैं - According to Census 2011, the districts with highest and lowest female literacy rate in Rajasthan are respectively -

    • Aकोटा, प्रतापगढ़ / Kota, Pratapgarh
    • Bकोटा, जालौर / Kota, Jalore
    • Cझुंझुनू, प्रतापगढ़ / Jhunjhunu, Pratapgarh
    • Dझुंझुनू, जालौर / Jhunjhunu, Jalore
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    According to the 2011 Census, Jhunjhunu recorded the highest female literacy rate among districts in Rajasthan, while Jalore recorded the lowest female literacy rate. / जनगणना 2011 के अनुसार राजस्थान में सर्वाधिक महिला साक्षरता झुंझुनू जिले की तथा न्यूनतम महिला साक्षरता जालौर जिले की है।

  24. Q24

    राजस्थान की मध्यम काली मृदा में, किस तत्व की प्रधानता पाई जाती है? / In medium black soil of Rajasthan, which element is found in abundance?

    • Aनाइट्रोजन / Nitrogen
    • Bह्यूमस / Humus
    • Cकैल्सियम / Calcium
    • Dफॉस्फेट / Phosphate
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    राजस्थान की मध्यम काली मृदा में कैल्सियम (Calcium), पोटाश और मैग्नीशियम जैसे तत्वों की प्रधानता पाई जाती है, जबकि नाइट्रोजन और ह्यूमस की कमी होती है। / Medium black soil of Rajasthan is characterized by an abundance of calcium, potash, and magnesium, while being deficient in nitrogen and humus.

  25. Q25

    निम्नलिखित में से राजस्थान के किस जिला समूह में उप-आर्द्र जलवायु पाई जाती है? / Which of the following group of districts of Rajasthan has sub-humid type of climate?

    • Aटोंक, कोटा, सवाई माधोपुर, जयपुर / Tonk, Kota, Sawai Madhopur, Jaipur
    • Bजयपुर, जालौर, टोंक, भीलवाड़ा / Jaipur, Jalore, Tonk, Bhilwara
    • Cसिरोही, डूंगरपुर, बाँ스वाड़ा, कोटा / Sirohi, Dungarpur, Banswara, Kota
    • Dअजमेर, पाली, उदयपुर, बाँसवाड़ा / Ajmer, Pali, Udaipur, Banswara
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why A

    टोंक, कोटा, सवाई माधोपुर और जयपुर जिलों में राजस्थान की उप-आर्द्र (Sub-humid) जलवायु पाई जाती है। / Districts like Tonk, Kota, Sawai Madhopur, and Jaipur fall under the sub-humid climatic region of Rajasthan.

  26. Q26

    निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए - (A) राजस्थान में डेयरी उद्योग का प्रारंभ 1981 में हुआ। (B) राजस्थान में डेयरी व्यवसाय का संचालन एवं उन्नयन करने हेतु राजस्थान सहकारी डेयरी फेडरेशन (RCDF) की स्थापना की गई। (C) RCDF राष्ट्रीय डेयरी विकास बोर्ड के निर्देशन में स्थापित की गई। कूट - (1) (B) और (C) सही हैं। (2) (A), (B) और (C) सही हैं। (3) (A) और (C) सही हैं। (4) (A) और (B) सही हैं। (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Consider the following statements - (A) The dairy industry in Rajasthan began in 1981. (B) Rajasthan Cooperative Dairy Federation (RCDF) was established to operate and promote the dairy business in Rajasthan. (C) RCDF was established under the guidance of the National Dairy Development Board. Code - (1) (B) and (C) are correct. (2) (A), (B) and (C) are correct. (3) (A) and (C) are correct. (4) (A) and (B) are correct. (5) Question not attempted

    • A(B) और (C) सही हैं। / (B) and (C) are correct.
    • B(A), (B) और (C) सही हैं। / (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
    • C(A) और (C) सही हैं। / (A) and (C) are correct.
    • D(A) और (B) सही हैं। / (A) and (B) are correct.
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    कथन (A) और (B) सही हैं क्योंकि राजस्थान में डेयरी उद्योग की शुरुआत 1981 में हुई थी और डेयरी व्यवसाय के संचालन के लिए RCDF की स्थापना की गई थी। / Statements (A) and (B) are correct because the dairy industry in Rajasthan began in 1981 and RCDF was established to operate the dairy business.

  27. Q27

    निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा युग्म (नदी का नाम - उद्गम स्थल) सुमेलित नहीं है? (1) कांतली - कालवा की पहाड़ियाँ (2) बेड़च - गोसुन्दा की पहाड़ियाँ (3) साबी - सेवर की पहाड़ियाँ (4) बनास - खमनोर की पहाड़ियाँ (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Which of the following pair (River's name - Place of origin) is not correctly matched? (1) Kantli - Hills of Kalva (2) Berach - Hills of Gogunda (3) Sabi - Hills of Sewar (4) Banas - Hills of Khamnor (5) Question not attempted

    • Aकांतली - कालवा की पहाड़ियाँ / Kantli - Hills of Kalva
    • Bबेड़च - गोसुन्दा की पहाड़ियाँ / Berach - Hills of Gogunda
    • Cसाबी - सेवर की पहाड़ियाँ / Sabi - Hills of Sewar
    • Dबनास - खमनोर की पहाड़ियाँ / Banas - Hills of Khamnor
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why B

    बेड़च नदी का उद्गम गोसुन्दा की पहाड़ियों से नहीं बल्कि उदयपुर जिले की गोगुंदा की पहाड़ियों से होता है, अतः यह युग्म सुमेलित नहीं है। अन्य सभी नदियाँ (कांतली, साबी, बनास) उनके सामने दिए गए उद्गम स्थलों से ही निकलती हैं।

  28. Q28

    निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा (पशु मेला - स्थान) सुमेलित नहीं है? (1) मल्लीनाथ पशु मेला - तिलवाड़ा (2) चन्द्रभागा पशु मेला - झालरापाटन (3) बलदेव पशु मेला - मानासर (4) तेजाजी पशु मेला - परबतसर (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Which among the following (Animal fair - Place) is not matched correctly? (1) Mallinath Animal Fair - Tilwara (2) Chandrabhaga Animal Fair - Jhalrapatan (3) Baldev Animal Fair - Manasar (4) Tejaji Animal Fair - Parbatsar (5) Question not attempted

    • Aमल्लीनाथ पशु मेला - तिलवाड़ा / Mallinath Animal Fair - Tilwara
    • Bचन्द्रभागा पशु मेला - झालरापाटन / Chandrabhaga Animal Fair - Jhalrapatan
    • Cबलदेव पशु मेला - मानासर / Baldev Animal Fair - Manasar
    • Dतेजाजी पशु मेला - परबतसर / Tejaji Animal Fair - Parbatsar
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    बलदेव पशु मेला नागौर जिले के मेड़ता सिटी में आयोजित होता है न कि मानासर में, अतः यह युग्म सुमेलित नहीं है। अन्य सभी मेले अपने सही स्थानों (मल्लीनाथ मेला - तिलवाड़ा, चंद्रभागा - झालरापाटन, तेजाजी मेला - परबतसर) पर आयोजित किए जाते हैं।

  29. Q29

    ''केन्द्रीय भेड़ एवं ऊन अनुसंधान संस्थान'' अवस्थित है - (1) मालपुरा में (2) पोखरण में (3) कोदमदेसर में (4) मांगलियावास में (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / "Central Sheep and Wool Research Institute" is located at - (1) Malpura (2) Pokhran (3) Kodamdesar (4) Mangaliyawas (5) Question not attempted

    • Aमालपुरा में / Malpura
    • Bपोखरण में / Pokhran
    • Cकोदमदेसर में / Kodamdesar
    • Dमांगलियावास में / Mangaliyawas
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why A

    केन्द्रीय भेड़ एवं ऊन अनुसंधान संस्थान (CSWRI) राजस्थान के टोंक जिले के मालपुरा तहसील के अविकानगर में स्थित है। इसलिए सही विकल्प मालपुरा (A) है।

  30. Q30

    निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए - (A) इस गौवंश का लाल भूरा रंग होता है। (B) गौवंश की इस नस्ल के छोटे और ढूंददार सींग होते हैं। (C) इस गौवंश के गृह निवास गंगानगर और हनुमानगढ़ जिले हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों के आधार पर दिए गए विकल्पों में से गौवंश की नस्ल पहचानिए - (1) नारी (2) थारपारकर (3) साहीवाल (4) कांकरेज (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Consider the following statements - (A) The colour of this cattle is reddish dun coat. (B) This breed of cattle has short and stumpy horns. (C) Home tract of this cattle is Ganganagar and Hanumangarh districts. On the basis of above statements, identify the breed of cattle from the options given below - (1) Nari (2) Tharparkar (3) Sahiwal (4) Kankrej (5) Question not attempted

    • Aनारी / Nari
    • Bथारपारकर / Tharparkar
    • Cसाहीवाल / Sahiwal
    • Dकांकरेज / Kankrej
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    साहीवाल गोवंश की नस्ल का रंग लाल भूरा (reddish dun) होता है, इसके सींग छोटे और ढूंददार होते हैं तथा इसका मुख्य गृह निवास क्षेत्र गंगानगर और हनुमानगढ़ जिले हैं। दिए गए सभी कथन साहीवाल नस्ल की विशेषताओं से पूरी तरह मेल खाते हैं।

  31. Q31

    वन विभाग, राजस्थान के प्रशासनिक प्रतिवेदन 2024-25 के अनुसार, राज्य के वन क्षेत्र के घटते क्रम में वनों का सही अनुक्रम है - (1) आरक्षित वन - अवर्गीकृत वन - रक्षित वन (2) रक्षित वन - अवर्गीकृत वन - आरक्षित वन (3) आरक्षित वन - रक्षित वन - अवर्गीकृत वन (4) रक्षित वन - आरक्षित वन - अवर्गीकृत वन (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / According to the Administrative Report 2024-25 of the Forest Department, Rajasthan, the correct sequence of forests in the state in decreasing order of forest area is - (1) Reserved forests - Unclassified forests - Protected forests (2) Protected forests - Unclassified forests - Reserved forests (3) Reserved forests - Protected forests - Unclassified forests (4) Protected forests - Reserved forests - Unclassified forests (5) Question not attempted

    • Aआरक्षित वन - अवर्गीकृत वन - रक्षित वन / Reserved forests - Unclassified forests - Protected forests
    • Bरक्षित वन - अवर्गीकृत वन - आरक्षित वन / Protected forests - Unclassified forests - Reserved forests
    • Cआरक्षित वन - रक्षित वन - अवर्गीकृत वन / Reserved forests - Protected forests - Unclassified forests
    • Dरक्षित वन - आरक्षित वन - अवर्गीकृत वन / Protected forests - Reserved forests - Unclassified forests
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    वन विभाग राजस्थान के प्रशासनिक प्रतिवेदन 2024-25 के अनुसार राज्य में वनों का घटता क्रम आरक्षित वन (Reserved Forests), इसके बाद रक्षित वन (Protected Forests), और अंत में अवर्गीकृत वन (Unclassified Forests) है। अतः विकल्प (3) सही अनुक्रम प्रस्तुत करता है।

  32. Q32

    सूची-I का सूची-II से मिलान कीजिए तथा नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग कर सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए - सूची-I (झील) (A) गैब सागर (B) गड़ीसर (C) छापड़ताल (D) तालाबशाही सूची-II (अवस्थिति) (i) जैसलमेर (ii) धौलपुर (iii) डूंगरपुर (iv) चूरू कूट - (1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii) (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv) (3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i) (4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii) (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the code given below - List-I (Lake) (A) Gaib Sagar (B) Gadhisar (C) Chapartal (D) Talabshahi List-II (Location) (i) Jaisalmer (ii) Dholpur (iii) Dungarpur (iv) Churu Code - (1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii) (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv) (3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i) (4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii) (5) Question not attempted

    • A(A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
    • B(A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
    • C(A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
    • D(A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    गैब सागर झील डूंगरपुर में, गड़ीसर झील जैसलमेर में, छापड़ताल चूरू में तथा तालाबशाही झील धौलपुर में स्थित है। इन सूचियों का सही मिलान (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii) बनता है, जो विकल्प (4) में दिया गया है।

  33. Q33

    केरुपाल तथा कच्ची नस्लें हैं - (1) घोड़े की (2) बकरी की (3) ऊँट की (4) भैंस की (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Kerupal and Kutchi are the breeds of - (1) Horse (2) Goat (3) Camel (4) Buffalo (5) Question not attempted

    • Aघोड़े की / Horse
    • Bबकरी की / Goat
    • Cऊँट की / Camel
    • Dभैंस की / Buffalo
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    केरुपाल और कच्ची (या कच्छी) ऊँट की प्रमुख नस्लें हैं। इसलिए इस प्रश्न का सही उत्तर ऊँट की (Camel) है।

  34. Q34

    राजस्थान के निम्नलिखित में से किस जिले में, "ऊँट महोत्सव" का आयोजन किया जाता है? (1) जैसलमेर (2) जोधपुर (3) बीकानेर (4) बाड़मेर (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / In which among the following district of Rajasthan, the "Camel Festival" is organised? (1) Jaisalmer (2) Jodhpur (3) Bikaner (4) Barmer (5) Question not attempted

    • Aजैसलमेर / Jaisalmer
    • Bजोधपुर / Jodhpur
    • Cबीकानेर / Bikaner
    • Dबाड़मेर / Barmer
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    प्रसिद्ध "ऊँट महोत्सव" (Camel Festival) का आयोजन प्रतिवर्ष राजस्थान के बीकानेर जिले में किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प (3) सही उत्तर है।

  35. Q35

    राजस्थान में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी भैंस की एक नस्ल नहीं है? (1) मुर्रह (2) नाली (3) जाफराबादी (4) महसाना (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Which one is not a breed of buffalo in Rajasthan? (1) Murrah (2) Nali (3) Jafrabadi (4) Mehsana (5) Question not attempted

    • Aमुर्रह / Murrah
    • Bनाली / Nali
    • Cजाफराबादी / Jafrabadi
    • Dमहसाना / Mehsana
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why B

    नाली (Nali) राजस्थान में भेड़ (Sheep) की एक प्रसिद्ध नस्ल है, न कि भैंस की। जबकि मुर्रह, जाफराबादी और महसाना राजस्थान में पाई जाने वाली या यहाँ से संबंधित भैंस की प्रमुख नस्लें हैं।

  36. Q36

    "नाग पहाड़" राजस्थान के किस जिले में स्थित है? (1) उदयपुर (2) जयपुर (3) अलवर (4) अजमेर (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / In which district of Rajasthan is 'Nag Pahar' located? (1) Udaipur (2) Jaipur (3) Alwar (4) Ajmer (5) Question not attempted

    • Aउदयपुर / Udaipur
    • Bजयपुर / Jaipur
    • Cअलवर / Alwar
    • Dअजमेर / Ajmer
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why D

    नाग पहाड़ राजस्थान के अजमेर जिले में स्थित एक महत्वपूर्ण भौगोलिक विशेषता है। इसी पहाड़ी से लूनी नदी का उद्गम होता है जो अजमेर से बहते हुए पश्चिमी राजस्थान की ओर जाती है।

  37. Q37

    राजस्थान में कृषि वर्ष 2015-16 से 2020-21 के मध्य सबसे अधिक सूखाग्रस्त जिलों की संख्या क्या थी? (1) 16 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) 15 (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / What was the highest number of districts in Rajasthan which were under drought in Agriculture years between 2015-16 and 2020-21? (1) 16 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) 15 (5) Question not attempted

    • A16
    • B19
    • C21
    • D15
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    कृषि वर्ष 2015-16 से 2020-21 के दौरान राजस्थान में सबसे अधिक सूखाग्रस्त जिलों की संख्या 21 दर्ज की गई थी। यह आंकड़ा इस समयावधि में राज्य में विभिन्न जिलों द्वारा अनुभव किए गए गंभीर सूखे की स्थिति को दर्शाता है।

  38. Q38

    राजस्थान पशुगणना 2019 के अनुसार, भैंसों की नस्ल का सर्वाधिक संख्या के आधार पर सही अवरोही क्रम है - (1) मुर्रह - सुरती - महसाना (2) जाफराबादी - मुर्रह - भदावरी (3) मुर्रह - जाफराबादी - महसाना (4) सुरती - मुर्रह - जाफराबादी (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / According to Rajasthan Livestock Census 2019, the correct descending order of buffalo breeds on the basis of maximum number is - (1) Murrah - Surti - Mehsana (2) Jafrabadi - Murrah - Bhadawari (3) Murrah - Jafrabadi - Mehsana (4) Surti - Murrah - Jafrabadi (5) Question not attempted

    • Aमुर्रह - सुरती - महसाना / Murrah - Surti - Mehsana
    • Bजाफराबादी - मुर्रह - भदावरी / Jafrabadi - Murrah - Bhadawari
    • Cमुर्रह - जाफराबादी - महसाना / Murrah - Jafrabadi - Mehsana
    • Dसुरती - मुर्रह - जाफराबादी / Surti - Murrah - Jafrabadi
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why C

    राजस्थान पशुगणना 2019 के अनुसार, राज्य में भैंसों की नस्लों की संख्या का सही अवरोही (घटता हुआ) क्रम 'मुर्रह - जाफराबादी - महसाना' है। इसमें मुर्रह नस्ल की भैंसों की संख्या सबसे अधिक है।

  39. Q39

    निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा युग्म (संरक्षित रिजर्व - जिले) सुमेलित नहीं है? (1) बाघदड़ा मगरमच्छ - कोटा (2) वाड़ाखेड़ा - सिरोही (3) हमीरगढ़ - भीलवाड़ा (4) खड़मोर - अजमेर (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Which of the following pair (Conservation Reserve - District) is not correctly matched? (1) Baghdara Crocodile - Kota (2) Wadakheda - Sirohi (3) Hamirgarh - Bhilwara (4) Kharmor - Ajmer (5) Question not attempted

    • Aबाघदड़ा मगरमच्छ - कोटा / Baghdara Crocodile - Kota
    • Bवाड़ाखेड़ा - सिरोही / Wadakheda - Sirohi
    • Cहमीरगढ़ - भीलवाड़ा / Hamirgarh - Bhilwara
    • Dखड़मोर - अजमेर / Kharmor - Ajmer
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why A

    बाघदड़ा मगरमच्छ संरक्षित रिजर्व कोटा में नहीं बल्कि उदयपुर जिले में स्थित है, इसलिए यह युग्म सुमेलित नहीं है। अन्य सभी विकल्प (वाड़ाखेड़ा-सिरोही, हमीरगढ़-भीलवाड़ा, खड़मोर-अजमेर) सही सुमेलित हैं।

  40. Q40

    राजस्थान के किस जिले में 2002 से 2024 के मध्य आग के कारण वृक्ष आवरण ह्रास दर अधिकतम थी? (1) उदयपुर (2) धौलपुर (3) जैसलमेर (4) चूरू (5) अनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Which district in Rajasthan had the highest rate of tree cover loss due to fire between 2002 to 2024? (1) Udaipur (2) Dholpur (3) Jaisalmer (4) Churu (5) Question not attempted

    • Aउदयपुर / Udaipur
    • Bधौलपुर / Dholpur
    • Cजैसलमेर / Jaisalmer
    • Dचूरू / Churu
    • Eअनुत्तरित प्रश्न / Question not attempted
    Why A

    वर्ष 2002 से 2024 के मध्य राजस्थान के उदयपुर जिले में आग के कारण वृक्ष आवरण (tree cover) ह्रास की दर अधिकतम दर्ज की गई है। उदयपुर में घने वनों की उपस्थिति के कारण यहाँ वनों में आग लगने की घटनाएं अधिक प्रभावित करती हैं।

  41. Q41

    Which of the following is an absorbable suture material?

    • APolypropylene
    • BUmbilical tape
    • CSilk
    • DPolydioxanone
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Polydioxanone (PDO) is a synthetic, absorbable monofilament suture material commonly used in soft tissue approximation. In contrast, polypropylene, silk, and umbilical tape are non-absorbable suture materials.

  42. Q42

    The nerve block performed to achieve motor paralysis of the eyelid is known as -

    • AInfratrochlear nerve block
    • BMental nerve block
    • CRetrobulbar nerve block
    • DAuriculopalpebral nerve block
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The auriculopalpebral nerve block is specifically performed to block the motor nerve supply to the eyelids, resulting in akinesia (motor paralysis) of the eyelids, which is useful in ophthalmic examinations of large animals like horses and cattle.

  43. Q43

    Which of the following bacteria is responsible for slime formation on meat?

    • AE. coli
    • BCorynebacterium
    • CPseudomonas
    • DClostridia
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Pseudomonas species are psychrotrophic bacteria that commonly grow on refrigerated meat surfaces, producing a characteristic slime layer and spoilage. (Pseudomonas बैक्टीरिया रेफ्रिजरेटेड मांस की सतह पर पनपते हैं और स्लाइम या चिपचिपी परत बनाने के लिए जिम्मेदार होते हैं।)

  44. Q44

    The most abundant fatty acid in meat fat is -

    • AOleic acid
    • BLinoleic acid
    • CArachidonic acid
    • DPalmitic acid
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Oleic acid is a monounsaturated fatty acid that is typically found in the highest concentration in animal meat fat, such as beef and pork. (ओलिक एसिड मांस की वसा में पाया जाने वाला सबसे प्रचुर मात्रा में मौजूद वसीय अम्ल है।)

  45. Q45

    Broiler finisher ration differs from broiler starter ration mainly by virtue of having -

    • AHigher fibre
    • BLower protein & higher energy
    • CHigher protein & higher energy
    • DLower energy & lower protein
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    A broiler finisher ration contains lower protein and lower energy compared to the starter ration, as older birds require less protein for tissue growth. (ब्रोइलर फिनिशर राशन में स्टार्टर राशन की तुलना में कम प्रोटीन और कम ऊर्जा होती है क्योंकि बड़े पक्षियों को कम प्रोटीन की आवश्यकता होती है।)

  46. Q46

    In Batch pasteurization, milk is subjected to which of the following temperature and duration?

    • A$135^\circ\text{C}$ for 15 minutes
    • B$72^\circ\text{C}$ for 15 seconds
    • C$63^\circ\text{C}$ for 30 minutes
    • D$150^\circ\text{C}$ for 30 seconds
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In batch pasteurization (also known as Low Temperature Long Time or LTLT method), milk is heated to $63^\circ\text{C}$ for 30 minutes. (बैच पाश्चराइजेशन विधि में दूध को $63^\circ\text{C}$ तापमान पर 30 मिनट के लिए गर्म किया जाता है।)

  47. Q47

    The optimum temperature of water inside the artificial vagina at the time of semen collection from a bull should be -

    • A$25-30^\circ\text{C}$
    • B$40-52^\circ\text{C}$
    • C$36-38^\circ\text{C}$
    • D$45-50^\circ\text{C}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The optimum temperature of water inside the artificial vagina for bull semen collection is maintained around $40-52^\circ\text{C}$ to stimulate ejaculation properly. (बुल से वीर्य एकत्र करते समय कृत्रिम योनि के अंदर पानी का इष्टतम तापमान $40-52^\circ\text{C}$ रखा जाता है ताकि नेचुरल जैसा अहसास हो सके।)

  48. Q48

    In veterinary surgical terminology, castration refers to -

    • ARemoval of testes in males only
    • BRemoval of entire cataract lens
    • CRemoval of gonads in either sex
    • DRemoval of ovaries in females only
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In veterinary surgical terminology, castration broadly refers to the removal of gonads (testes in males or ovaries in females) in either sex, though most commonly associated with males. (पशु चिकित्सा में कैस्ट्रेशन का अर्थ नर या मादा दोनों में से किसी में भी गोनाड्स यानी वृषण या अंडाशय को हटाना है।)

  49. Q49

    Which one of the following is not a common cause of downer - cow syndrome in cows?

    • AMusculoskeletal or neurologic injuries secondary to dystocia
    • BAcute hypokalaemia
    • CSecondary to prolonged recumbency associated with parturient paresis
    • DSecondary to hypomagnesemic tetany
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Downer cow syndrome is commonly caused by metabolic disorders and injuries such as parturient paresis (milk fever), acute hypokalaemia, and dystocia-related traumas, whereas hypomagnesemic tetany (grass tetany) presents with different primary neurological signs and is not a standard common cause of downer cow syndrome. / डाउनर काउ सिंड्रोम मुख्य रूप से मिल्क फीवर, हाइपओकेलेमिया और प्रसव संबंधी चोटों से जुड़ा होता है, जबकि हाइपोमैग्नेसेमिक टिटैनी इसका एक सामान्य कारण नहीं है।

  50. Q50

    Teres tubercle is characteristic finding of which of the following bones of Ox?

    • AScapula
    • BFemur
    • CTibia
    • DHumerus
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The teres tubercle (tuberositas teres) is a prominent anatomical landmark and characteristic finding located on the humerus bone of an ox, serving as the insertion point for the teres major muscle. / टेरेस ट्यूबरकल (Teres tubercle) ऑक्स (बैल) की ह्यूमरस हड्डी की एक प्रमुख विशेषता है, जो टेरेस मेजर मांसपेशी के जुड़ने का स्थान है।

  51. Q51

    Temperature regulating centre is located in which of the following parts of brain?

    • ACerebellum
    • BThalamus
    • CHypothalamus
    • DMedulla
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The hypothalamus acts as the body's thermostat and is the primary part of the brain responsible for regulating core body temperature. / हाइपोथैलेमस मस्तिष्क का वह भाग है जो शरीर के तापमान को नियंत्रित करने वाले केंद्र के रूप में कार्य करता है।

  52. Q52

    Improvement of livestock breeds is undertaken under which scheme of Government of India -

    • ARashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM)
    • BNational Livestock Mission (NLM)
    • CBoth (1) and (2)
    • DLivestock Health and Disease Control (LH&DC)
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Both Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) and National Livestock Mission (NLM) are major initiatives by the Government of India aimed at the development and improvement of livestock breeds. / राष्ट्रीय गोकुल मिशन और राष्ट्रीय पशुधन मिशन दोनों ही भारत सरकार की ऐसी योजनाएं हैं जिनका उद्देश्य पशुधन नस्लों में सुधार करना है।

  53. Q53

    Which of the following antiviral drug is a pyrophosphate analogue?

    • ARibavirin
    • BFoscarnet
    • CZidovudine
    • DDidanosine
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Foscarnet is an organic analogue of inorganic pyrophosphate that inhibits viral DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase. / फोस्कारनेट एक कार्बनिक पाइरोफॉस्फेट एनालॉग है जो वायरल डीएनए पोलीमरेज़ को रोकता है।

  54. Q54

    Needle length (cm) and gauge required for lumbosacral CSF collection in adult cattle should be -

    • A10 and 18
    • B5.0 and 18
    • C10 and 20
    • D5.0 and 20
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    For lumbosacral cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) collection in adult cattle, a needle with a length of 10 cm and a gauge of 20 is typically required. / वयस्क मवेशियों में लुंबोसैक्रल सीएसएफ (CSF) संग्रह के लिए आमतौर पर 10 सेमी लंबी और 20 गेज की सुई की आवश्यकता होती है।

  55. Q55

    The urine dipstick protein test provides a useful on-farm assessment of -

    • APlasma protein concentration
    • BBlood urea nitrogen concentration
    • CCSF protein concentration
    • DSerum protein concentration
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The urine dipstick protein test is primarily used on-farm as a useful assessment tool related to plasma protein concentration changes and proteinuria. / यूरिन डिपस्टिक प्रोटीन परीक्षण का उपयोग खेत पर प्लाज्मा प्रोटीन सांद्रता के उपयोगी आकलन के लिए किया जाता है।

  56. Q56

    Lowenstein-Jensen medium promotes growth of the following microorganisms?

    • AMycobacterium spp.
    • BBacillus spp.
    • CPasteurella spp.
    • DSalmonella spp.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium is a solid egg-based growth medium specifically formulated and traditionally used for the isolation and cultivation of Mycobacterium species, particularly Mycobacterium tuberculosis. / लोवेन्स्टीन-जेनसेन (LJ) माध्यम विशेष रूप से माइकोबैक्टीरियम प्रजातियों (Mycobacterium spp.), विशेषकर तपेदिक के जीवाणु के संवर्धन के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है।

  57. Q57

    Parasite which must spend at least a part of its life as a parasite on its host to survive and complete its life cycle is termed as -

    • ATemporary parasite
    • BObligatory parasite
    • CFacultative parasite
    • DAccidental parasite
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    An obligatory parasite is one that is completely dependent on its host to survive, grow, and complete its life cycle, lacking a free-living existence. / एक अनिवार्य परजीवी (obligatory parasite) वह जीव है जो अपने जीवन चक्र को पूरा करने और जीवित रहने के लिए पूरी तरह से अपने पोषक (host) पर निर्भर रहता है।

  58. Q58

    Which of the following statement is not correct?

    • ATotal spermatozoa per ejaculum is highest in stallion and lowest in dog.
    • BRam has the highest spermatozoa concentrations and stallion has the lowest spermatozoa concentration.
    • CpH of semen of stallion, boar and cat is 7.4, whereas that of bull and ram is 6.8.
    • DBoar has the highest volume of semen and cat the lowest among domestic and pet animals.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Option A is not correct because the total spermatozoa per ejaculate is generally highest in the stallion (due to very large volume) or boar, but the statement incorrectly contrasts extremes; actually, the total number of spermatozoa per ejaculate is typically highest in the boar and lowest in the dog/cat, making this statement factually inaccurate.

  59. Q59

    Asthenozoospermia means -

    • AHigh percentage of abnormal sperm
    • BNormal sperm concentration
    • CDecreased sperm motility
    • DReduced sperm volume
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Asthenozoospermia is a medical condition defined by reduced or decreased sperm motility, which affects the ability of sperm to swim properly towards the egg. Therefore, option C is the correct definition.

  60. Q60

    Vaccines produced by recombinant DNA technology are characterized by -

    • Ause of inactivated toxins (toxoids).
    • Bproduction of specific antigenic proteins using cloned genes.
    • Cuse of killed whole microorganisms only.
    • Duse of live attenuated whole organisms.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Recombinant DNA technology vaccines work by introducing cloned genes into host expression systems to produce specific antigenic proteins that stimulate an immune response. Thus, option B correctly describes the hallmark of these subunit or recombinant vaccines.

  61. Q61

    With regard to stringhalt in horses, which of the following statement is not correct?

    • AClinical signs become more pronounced in cold weather.
    • BLateral digital extensor tenotomy is a surgical treatment option.
    • CThe condition involves locking of the patella over the medial femoral trochlea.
    • DIt is characterized by involuntary flexion of the hock during progression.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Option C is not correct because the locking of the patella over the medial femoral trochlea describes upward fixation of the patella, whereas stringhalt is characterized by involuntary hyperflexion of the hock joint.

  62. Q62

    The 'Livestock Census' in India is conducted once in every -

    • A20 years
    • B10 years
    • C5 years
    • D15 years
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The Livestock Census in India is a nationwide comprehensive census conducted periodically by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, traditionally once every 5 years (option C is correct).

  63. Q63

    Which one of the following statements is not true?

    • ABulletin contains small amount of information.
    • BFolder is a single piece of paper.
    • CLeaflet is a single sheet of paper having information on one topic only.
    • DPamphlet size varies from 2-12 pages.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Option A is not true because an agricultural bulletin actually contains comprehensive, detailed, and in-depth information on a specific topic rather than just a small amount of information.

  64. Q64

    What is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in newborn farm animals within the first few days of life in winter season?

    • AToxaemia
    • BFever
    • CSepticaemia
    • DNeonatal hypothermia
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    During the winter season, newborn farm animals lack effective thermoregulation and subcutaneous fat, making them highly susceptible to neonatal hypothermia, which is a major cause of early morbidity and mortality.

  65. Q65

    Chronic or recurrent ruminal tympany along with muffled heart sounds detectable on both sides of the thorax are common clinical findings in cattle in the case of -

    • AVagal indigestion
    • BDiaphragmatic hernia
    • CTraumatic pericarditis
    • DTraumatic reticuloperitonitis
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Traumatic pericarditis leads to fluid accumulation (pericardial effusion) and fibrin deposition in the pericardial sac, which dampens heart sounds (muffled heart sounds) and impairs cardiac function, often secondary to chronic reticular problems.

  66. Q66

    Which of the following organ is most commonly affected in liquefactive necrosis?

    • ALung
    • BKidney
    • CLiver
    • DBrain
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Liquefactive necrosis is characterized by the digestion of tissue into a liquid viscous mass, which predominantly occurs in the brain due to its high lipid and low protein content, along with abundant hydrolytic enzymes. (मस्तिष्क में प्रोटीन की कमी और उच्च वसा तथा एंजाइम सामग्री के कारण लिक्वेफेक्टिव नेक्रोसिस सबसे आम तौर पर यहीं होता है।)

  67. Q67

    Which of the following test/s is/are used for the diagnosis of anthrax in cattle?

    • AAscoli's thermoprecipitation test
    • BM'Fadyean reaction
    • CPeripheral blood smear staining with polychrome methylene blue
    • DAll of the above
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Diagnosis of anthrax in cattle involves multiple reliable techniques including Ascoli's thermoprecipitation test, the M'Fadyean reaction, and peripheral blood smear staining with polychrome methylene blue to identify Bacillus anthracis. (गोवंश में एंथ्राक्स के निदान के लिए Ascoli's परीक्षण, M'Fadyean प्रतिक्रिया और पॉलीक्रोम मेथिलीन ब्लू से रक्त लेप की स्टेनिंग जैसी सभी विधियाँ उपयुक्त हैं।)

  68. Q68

    Which of the following animal species shows the most rapid Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) under normal physiological condition?

    • ACattle
    • BDog
    • CHorse
    • DSheep
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Among domestic animals, horses exhibit the most rapid Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) under normal physiological conditions due to a strong tendency of their red blood cells to form rouleaux. (सामान्य शारीरिक स्थिति के तहत घोड़ों में लाल रक्त कोशिकाओं के रौलेक्स बनाने की तीव्र प्रवृत्ति के कारण सबसे तेज ईएसआर देखा जाता है।)

  69. Q69

    Loss of energy through methane in ruminants is -

    • A13-15% GE
    • B16-18% of GE
    • C10-12% of GE
    • D7-9% of GE
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In ruminants, enteric fermentation in the rumen leads to methane production, which typically accounts for a loss of about 10-12% of the total Gross Energy (GE) intake. (रोमंथक पशुओं में मिथेन गैस के माध्यम से ऊर्जा की हानि कुल सकल ऊर्जा (GE) का लगभग 10-12% होती है।)

  70. Q70

    Mating of selected members of successive generations among themselves to fix desirable characteristics is termed as -

    • AGrading up
    • BCrossbreeding
    • CTest cross
    • DLinebreeding
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Linebreeding is a specialized form of inbreeding where mating is directed toward keeping a specific, highly desirable ancestor prominent in the successive generations. (लाइनब्रीडिंग एक ऐसी प्रजनन प्रणाली है जिसमें वांछनीय विशेषताओं को स्थिर करने के लिए पीढ़ियों तक चयनित पूर्वजों के बीच मिलन कराया जाता है।)

  71. Q71

    Which of the following statement correctly describes the Lembert suture technique?

    • AIt includes the mucous membrane and causes eversion of wound edges.
    • BIt is applied parallel to the wound edge for stronger union.
    • CIt approximates serous layers without including the mucous membrane.
    • DIt is mainly used for skin closure under tension.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The Lembert suture is an inverting suture pattern used primarily in hollow viscera to approximate the serous layers without penetrating the mucous membrane. (लेम्बर्ट सीवन तकनीक मुख्य रूप से श्लेष्म झिल्ली (mucous membrane) को शामिल किए बिना सीरस परतों को एक साथ लाने के लिए उपयोग की जाती है।)

  72. Q72

    Injection of 20 to 30 I.U. of oxytocin in mares late in gestation may induce parturition within -

    • A9 to 12 hours
    • B1 to 3 hours
    • C6 to 9 hours
    • D3 to 6 hours
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Administering 20 to 30 I.U. of oxytocin in mares in late gestation typically stimulates myometrial contractions and induces parturition within 3 to 6 hours. (गर्भावस्था के अंतिम चरण में घोड़ी को 20 से 30 I.U. ऑक्सीटोसिन देने पर आमतौर पर 3 से 6 घंटे के भीतर प्रसव प्रेरित हो जाता है।)

  73. Q73

    The phenomenon in which a drug that has no pharmacological effect on its own but enhances the effect of another drug is known as -

    • ASynergism
    • BPotentiation
    • CAddition
    • DAntagonism
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Potentiation is a specific type of drug interaction where an inactive or sub-effective drug enhances the pharmacological effect of another active drug. (पोटेंशिएशन वह घटना है जिसमें एक ऐसी दवा जिसका अपना कोई प्रभाव नहीं होता, वह दूसरी दवा के प्रभाव को बढ़ा देती है।)

  74. Q74

    Which of the following sheep breed is not native to Rajasthan?

    • AMagra
    • BChokla
    • CSonadi
    • DPatanwadi
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Patanwadi is a prominent sheep breed native to Gujarat (specifically the Saurashtra region), whereas Magra, Chokla, and Sonadi are well-known sheep breeds native to Rajasthan.

  75. Q75

    Choose the incorrect statement -

    • AExtension is working together with the culture of people.
    • BExtension is teaching people what to want.
    • CExtension is learning by doing and seeing is believing.
    • DExtension is a one-way channel.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Agricultural extension is fundamentally a two-way communication channel involving a continuous exchange of information between extension workers and farmers, making the statement that it is a 'one-way channel' incorrect.

  76. Q76

    Insemination of a cow should be performed during the period from -

    • Amiddle to the end of the oestrum
    • Bat the end of the oestrum
    • Cat the onset of the oestrum
    • Donset to the middle of the oestrum
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Insemination of a cow should ideally be performed during the middle to the end of the oestrum (heat) period to ensure optimal timing for fertilization as ovulation typically occurs towards the end of or shortly after estrus. / गाय में कृत्रिम गर्भाधान (insemination) का सही समय मद (oestrum) काल के मध्य से अंत के बीच होता है ताकि निषेचन की संभावना अधिकतम हो सके।

  77. Q77

    Total ATP yield in oxidation of one molecule of glucose to $\text{CO}_2$ and $\text{H}_2\text{O}$ is -

    • A12 ATP
    • B2 ATP
    • C38 ATP
    • D28 ATP
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose via glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation yields a theoretical maximum of 38 ATP molecules in eukaryotic cells. / ग्लूकोज के एक अणु के पूर्ण ऑक्सीकरण से श्वसन प्रक्रिया के दौरान कुल 38 ATP अणुओं का उत्पादन होता है।

  78. Q78

    The thermal death time for pasteurization standards is based on inactivation of -

    • ACoxiella burnetii
    • BBrucella melitensis
    • CMycobacterium tuberculosis
    • DListeria monocytogenes
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Pasteurization standards are traditionally designed based on the thermal death time required to destroy the most heat-resistant non-sporeforming pathogen commonly found in milk, which is Mycobacterium tuberculosis. / दूध के पाश्चुरीकरण के मानक उस समय और तापमान पर आधारित होते हैं जो माइकोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूबरकुलोसिस (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) को नष्ट करने के लिए आवश्यक होते हैं।

  79. Q79

    Dry matter requirement of meat goat is ...................................... of its live body weight.

    • A1-2%
    • B3-4%
    • C> 6%
    • D5-6%
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The dry matter requirement for meat goats is generally estimated to be around 5-6% of their live body weight to support optimal growth and maintenance.

  80. Q80

    With regards to effects of inbreeding, which of the following is incorrect?

    • AInbreeding tends to depress the growth rate in farm animals.
    • BInbreeding depression is low for traits associated with reproduction.
    • CInbreeding results into an increase in death rate.
    • DAll of the above
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Inbreeding depression is actually very high (most severe) for traits associated with reproductive efficiency and fitness, making the statement that it is low for these traits incorrect.

  81. Q81

    Haemorrhage in the brain with loss of consciousness is known as -

    • AApoplexy
    • BEpilepsy
    • CEpistaxis
    • DMelena
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Apoplexy refers to sudden bleeding (haemorrhage) within an organ such as the brain, typically resulting in the loss of consciousness and neurological deficits.

  82. Q82

    Carcass yield of goat at slaughter age of one year is -

    • A45 - 48 percent
    • B70 - 75 percent
    • C30 - 35 percent
    • D60 - 62 percent
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The carcass yield (dressing percentage) of well-fed goats at the slaughter age of one year typically ranges between 60 to 62 percent of their live weight.

  83. Q83

    Which of the following statement is not correct?

    • ATattooing is mostly used for identification of sheep and goats.
    • BBranding is mostly used for identification of cattle and camels.
    • CJagging is mostly used for identification of sheep and goats.
    • DEar notching is mostly used for identification of camels and calves.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Ear notching is commonly used for identifying pigs and small ruminants rather than camels and calves, making this statement incorrect.

  84. Q84

    The dental formula for adult cattle is -

    • A$2\left(\text{I}\frac{0}{4}, \text{C}\frac{0}{0}, \text{P}\frac{0}{3}, \text{M}\frac{3}{3}\right)$
    • B$2\left(\text{I}\frac{0}{4}, \text{C}\frac{0}{0}, \text{P}\frac{3}{3}, \text{M}\frac{3}{3}\right)$
    • C$2\left(\text{I}\frac{1}{3}, \text{C}\frac{0}{0}, \text{P}\frac{3}{3}, \text{M}\frac{0}{0}\right)$
    • D$2\left(\text{I}\frac{0}{3}, \text{C}\frac{1}{1}, \text{P}\frac{0}{3}, \text{M}\frac{3}{3}\right)$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Adult cattle lack upper incisors and canines, having dental pads instead, and their permanent dental formula is represented as 2(I 0/4, C 0/0, P 3/3, M 3/3), which corresponds to option A (noting standard ruminant notation conventions).

  85. Q85

    Which of the following viruses is responsible for producing Crimean-Congo Haemorrhagic Fever (CCHF)?

    • APhlebovirus
    • BFlavivirus
    • CHantavirus
    • DNairovirus
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Crimean-Congo Haemorrhagic Fever (CCHF) is caused by a virus belonging to the genus Nairovirus in the family Bunyaviridae. Therefore, Nairovirus is the correct causative agent among the given options.

  86. Q86

    Profuse watery diarrhoea (Rice water) is a characteristic finding of which of the following?

    • AAs poisoning
    • BCu poisoning
    • CSe poisoning
    • DHg poisoning
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Acute arsenic (As) poisoning can cause severe gastrointestinal irritation and fluid loss, leading to profuse watery diarrhoea that is often described as resembling rice water. This clinical presentation mimics severe cholera due to intense mucosal damage and fluid secretion.

  87. Q87

    Antinutritional factor present in castor bean is -

    • AMimosine
    • BRicin
    • CTannins
    • DGossypol
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Ricin is a potent toxic glycoprotein and antinutritional factor naturally present in castor beans (Ricinus communis). It inhibits protein synthesis and is highly toxic to cells.

  88. Q88

    The major pathogenic effect of Ascaris (Ascaris lumbricoides/Ascaris suum) infection during larval migration is -

    • Aneurotoxicity due to toxin secretion by adult worms.
    • Bverminous pneumonia due to larval migration through the lungs.
    • Csevere ulceration of the intestinal mucosa.
    • Dchronic hepatitis caused by adult worms in the liver.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    During the migration of Ascaris larvae through the lungs, they cause localized hemorrhages, inflammation, and eosinophilic infiltration, leading to a condition known as verminous pneumonia. This respiratory phase is the major pathogenic effect associated with the larval migration stage.

  89. Q89

    The characteristic cellular feature of granulomatous inflammation is represented by the presence of -

    • AMast cells and basophils
    • BPredominantly neutrophils
    • CPlasma cells and eosinophils
    • DEpithelioid cells
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Granulomatous inflammation is a specialized form of chronic inflammation characterized by a microscopic collection of modified macrophages called epithelioid cells, often surrounded by lymphocytes and sometimes fused into giant cells.

  90. Q90

    Which one of the following is not considered as macro mineral for poultry diet?

    • ASulphur
    • BManganese
    • CPotassium
    • DMagnesium
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Manganese is classified as a trace mineral (micromineral) rather than a macromineral because poultry require it in very small amounts for normal bone development and enzyme function. Sulphur, potassium, and magnesium are macrominerals.

  91. Q91

    Flushing is done -

    • Aafter breeding season
    • Bbefore breeding season
    • Cimmediately after parturition
    • Dat mid gestation
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Flushing refers to the practice of providing a high-energy and high-protein diet to livestock (such as ewes) just before the breeding season to improve ovulation rate and increase the number of multiple births.

  92. Q92

    'Apparent digestibility' of the food is always 'lower' than 'true' digestibility because of -

    • AMicrobial synthesis of fecal nitrogen
    • BExcreted metabolic products of the gut
    • COverestimation of nutrients
    • DEndogenous secretions
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Apparent digestibility is lower than true digestibility because fecal nitrogen and nutrients include not only unabsorbed food but also microbial biomass and metabolic byproducts synthesized by gut microbes in the large intestine. This microbial synthesis artificially increases fecal output of the nutrient, lowering the apparent digestibility value.

  93. Q93

    Bog spavin in horses involves -

    • ADistension of fetlock joint capsule
    • BDistension of tibiotarsal joint capsule
    • CDistension of coffin joint
    • DDistension of carpal joint
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Bog spavin is characterized by the distension of the tibiotarsal (hock) joint capsule due to an excess of synovial fluid. It appears as a soft, fluid-filled swelling on the craniomedial aspect of the hock in horses.

  94. Q94

    Marked consolidation and marbling of lung are common characteristic lesions observed during post-mortem examination in cases of -

    • AContagious bovine pleuropneumonia
    • BViral interstitial pneumonia of cattle
    • CPneumonic pasteurellosis of cattle
    • DEnzootic pneumonia of calves
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia (CBPP) is classically characterized on post-mortem examination by marked lung consolidation and a characteristic 'marbled' appearance caused by the distension of interlobular septa with edema and fibrin.

  95. Q95

    At what concentration lignocaine hydrochloride solution is used for topical anaesthesia?

    • A2.50 percent
    • B4.00 percent
    • C0.25 percent
    • D5.00 percent
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Lignocaine hydrochloride is typically used at a 4.00 percent concentration for effective topical or surface anesthesia on mucous membranes. Lower concentrations are generally used for infiltration or nerve blocks.

  96. Q96

    Which of the following term is not a synonym for cutaneous habronemosis, a parasitic skin condition of horse?

    • AGreasy heel
    • BGranular dermatitis
    • CSummer sore
    • DBursati
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Granular dermatitis, summer sore, and bursati are all widely recognized synonyms for cutaneous habronemosis in horses. Greasy heel (scratchers) refers to dermatitis of the pastern and heel, and is not a synonym for habronemosis.

  97. Q97

    Which of the following calculi are extremely rare cause of urolithiasis in ruminants?

    • AStruvite calculi
    • BSiliceous calculi
    • COxalate calculi
    • DCalcium carbonate calculi
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Calcium carbonate calculi are extremely rare causes of urolithiasis in ruminants compared to struvite, silicate, or oxalate stones, which are much more commonly encountered in livestock diets.

  98. Q98

    In which of the following condition, crepitation is felt during recto-genital palpation of uterus after four months of pregnancy in cows?

    • AMummification of foetus
    • BMaceration of foetus
    • CMucometra
    • DPyometra
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Mummification of the fetus in cows is characterized by the absorption of fetal fluids and desiccation of the fetus, leading to a papery consistency that produces a palpable crepitation sound or sensation during recto-genital examination after four months of pregnancy.

  99. Q99

    An articular surface present in the form of a very small pit is termed as -

    • AForamen
    • BFacet
    • CFovea
    • DFossa
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    A fovea is anatomically defined as a small pit or depression on a bone surface, often serving as an articular surface for a ligament or articulating bone. A facet is a smooth, flat surface, whereas a fossa is a broader depression and a foramen is a hole.

  100. Q100

    Which of the following are the principal products of the rumen fermentation?

    • AVitamins
    • BVolatile fatty acids
    • CAmino acids
    • DGlucose
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Volatile fatty acids (VFAs)—primarily acetate, propionate, and butyrate—are the principal end-products of microbial fermentation in the rumen and serve as the major energy source for ruminants.

  101. Q101

    IgE antibody is involved in which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions?

    • AType III
    • BType I
    • CType IV
    • DType II
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE antibodies, which bind to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators upon allergen exposure. This immediate allergic reaction is characteristic of IgE involvement.

  102. Q102

    Minimum floor space requirement $(\text{m}^2)$ for cows (per animal) should be -

    • ACovered area - $12.0\text{ m}^2$ and open paddock - $120\text{ m}^2$
    • BCovered area - $3.5\text{ m}^2$ and open paddock - $7.0\text{ m}^2$
    • CCovered area - $2\text{ m}^2$ and open paddock - $4\text{ m}^2$
    • DCovered area - $7\text{ m}^2$ and open paddock - $12\text{ m}^2$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    According to standard dairy housing guidelines, the recommended minimum floor space requirement per adult cow is 3.5 square meters for the covered area and 7.0 square meters for the open paddock. This ensures adequate comfort, movement, and hygiene for the animals.

  103. Q103

    Which of the following is not a true statement?

    • AQuantitative traits show polygenic inheritance.
    • BQualitative traits are controlled by few genes.
    • CEnvironment has little or no effect on phenotypic expression of qualitative traits.
    • DQualitative traits are represented by normal distribution.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Qualitative traits typically show discontinuous variation and are represented by distinct phenotypic classes rather than a continuous normal distribution. In contrast, quantitative traits follow a normal distribution due to polygenic inheritance and environmental influences.

  104. Q104

    Which of the following is a plasma-derived chemical mediator?

    • AHistamine
    • BCytokines
    • CProstaglandins
    • DBradykinin
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Bradykinin is a peptide mediator derived from plasma proteins (specifically kininogen) through the action of kallikreins, unlike histamine, cytokines, and prostaglandins which are cell-derived mediators. Thus, it is classified as a plasma-derived chemical mediator of inflammation.

  105. Q105

    The primary purpose of diagnostic serology is to -

    • Adetermine antimicrobial sensitivity.
    • Bidentify bacterial morphology by staining.
    • Cdetect antibodies or antigens in serum.
    • Disolate and culture the causative microorganism.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Diagnostic serology focuses on the scientific study of serum and body fluids to detect specific antibodies or antigens resulting from an immune response to a pathogen. This allows clinicians to diagnose various infectious diseases and immune disorders.

  106. Q106

    Which of the following parasite is commonly known as "Fringed tapeworm" of ruminants?

    • AThysaniezia giardi
    • BStilesia hepatica
    • CThysanosoma actinioides
    • DMoniezia expansa
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Thysanosoma actinioides is commonly known as the "fringed tapeworm" of ruminants due to the characteristic fringe-like posterior margin of its proglottids. It typically inhabits the bile ducts, pancreatic ducts, and small intestine of sheep, goats, and other ruminants.

  107. Q107

    Post-partum haemorrhages in mares commonly result due to the rupture of -

    • AAorta
    • BMiddle uterine artery
    • CCoronary artery
    • DUmbilical artery
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Post-partum haemorrhage in mares frequently occurs due to the rupture of the middle uterine artery, which undergoes significant enlargement and hypertrophy during gestation and is highly susceptible to tearing during or immediately after foaling. घोड़ियों में प्रसवोत्तर रक्तस्राव मुख्य रूप से मिडिल यूटरिन आर्टरी (middle uterine artery) के फटने के कारण होता है।

  108. Q108

    Which of the following lobes of the cerebral hemisphere is the primary visual area of brain?

    • AOccipital lobe
    • BTemporal lobe
    • CFrontal lobe
    • DParietal lobe
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The occipital lobe located at the back of the cerebral hemisphere contains the primary visual cortex, making it the primary visual area of the brain. मस्तिष्क के सेरेब्रल हेमिस्फेयर का ओसीपिटल लोब (Occipital lobe) मुख्य रूप से दृष्टि (vision) के लिए जिम्मेदार प्राथमिक दृश्य क्षेत्र होता है।

  109. Q109

    Which of the following is the coefficient of individual born to full-sibs mating?

    • A0.50
    • B0.625
    • C0.125
    • D0.25
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The coefficient of inbreeding (F) for an individual produced by full-sibs mating (brother-sister or parent-offspring) is 0.25. पूर्ण सहोदर (full-sibs) के बीच संभोग से उत्पन्न होने वाले व्यक्ति का इनब्रीडिंग गुणांक (coefficient of inbreeding) 0.25 होता है।

  110. Q110

    As per BAHS (Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2025), India ranks which position in global egg production?

    • A2nd
    • B3rd
    • C4th
    • D1st
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    According to the Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics (BAHS), India holds the 2nd position globally in total egg production. बुनियादी पशुपालन सांख्यिकी (BAHS) के अनुसार, वैश्विक अंडा उत्पादन में भारत का दूसरा (2nd) स्थान है।

  111. Q111

    Which of the following statement is incorrect?

    • AIf heritability is high, selection will be effective.
    • BHeritability of a character does not differ from population to population and also from time to time.
    • CHeritability ranges from 0 to 1.
    • DAll reproductive traits will be low heritable.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    The incorrect statement is that heritability does not differ from population to population; in fact, heritability estimates are specific to a particular population and environment and can vary across populations and times. यह कथन गलत है कि वंशागत्व (heritability) आबादी दर आबादी और समय के साथ नहीं बदलता है, जबकि यह जनसंख्या और पर्यावरण के अनुसार भिन्न हो सकता है।

  112. Q112

    Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    • APrepartum diets high in anions result in a decrease in the incidence of milk fever.
    • BPrepartum diets high in cations are associated with an increased incidence of milk fever.
    • CPrepartum diets high in anions result in an increase in the incidence of milk fever.
    • DFeeding high cations and low anions in the diets increases the incidence of milk fever.
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Feeding prepartum diets high in anions lowers blood pH and helps prevent milk fever, making the statement that high anions increase milk fever incidence incorrect. प्रसव पूर्व आहार में उच्च ऋणायन (anions) देने से मिल्क फीवर की घटना कम होती है, इसलिए यह कहना गलत है कि उच्च ऋणायन मिल्क फीवर को बढ़ाते हैं।

  113. Q113

    Which one of the following is not a contagious pathogen causing bovine mastitis?

    • AStaphylococcus aureus
    • BStreptococcus agalactiae
    • CStreptococcus uberis
    • DCorynebacterium bovis
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Streptococcus uberis is generally classified as an environmental pathogen causing mastitis, unlike contagious pathogens such as Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, and Corynebacterium bovis. स्ट्रेप्टोकॉकस यूबेरिस (Streptococcus uberis) एक पर्यावरण जनित (environmental) रोगजनक है, न कि संक्रामक (contagious) रोगजनक।

  114. Q114

    Which of the following is included as a protein source in the ration?

    • ANeem leaves
    • BMolasses
    • CGroundnut cake
    • DWheat bran
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Groundnut cake is a rich plant-based protein supplement commonly included in animal rations to meet protein requirements. मूंगफली की खली (Groundnut cake) पशुओं के राशन में एक प्रमुख प्रोटीन स्रोत के रूप में शामिल की जाती है।

  115. Q115

    In indirect calorimetry, which of the following compound is used as an absorbent for carbon dioxide?

    • ACalcium carbonate
    • BCopper sulphate
    • CSoda lime
    • DNone of the above
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    In indirect calorimetry, soda lime is widely used as a chemical absorbent to trap and remove carbon dioxide from expired air so that oxygen consumption can be accurately measured. सोडा लाइम अप्रत्यक्ष कैलोरीिमिट्री में कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड को अवशोषित करने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है।

  116. Q116

    Peyer's patches are located in the -

    • AIleum
    • BStomach
    • CLiver
    • DKidney
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Peyer's patches are aggregated lymphoid follicles located specifically in the mucous membrane lining the ileum, which is the final section of the small intestine. पेयेर पैच (Peyer's patches) आंत के अंतिम भाग यानी इलियम (ileum) में स्थित होते हैं।

  117. Q117

    A sub-specific group of domestic animals with definable and identifiable external characteristics that enables it to be prepared by visual appraisal from other similarly defined groups within the same species is known as -

    • AStrain
    • BBreed
    • CSpecies
    • DAll of these
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    A breed is defined as a sub-specific group of domestic animals having homogeneous, definable, and identifiable external characteristics that distinguish them from other groups within the same species. नस्ल (Breed) घरेलू जानवरों का एक ऐसा उप-समूह है जिसकी विशिष्ट बाहरी विशेषताएं होती हैं।

  118. Q118

    Which of the following happens as a consequence of primary toxic mechanism of cyanide poisoning in animals?

    • AFormation of carboxy haemoglobin leading to hypoxia
    • BInhibition of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme
    • CInhibition of cytochrome oxidase enzyme in mitochondria causing cellular hypoxia
    • DIncreased methemoglobin formation in blood
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Cyanide toxicity primarily acts by binding to and inhibiting the cytochrome c oxidase enzyme within the mitochondrial electron transport chain, thereby preventing cellular oxygen utilization and causing cellular hypoxia. सायनाइड विषाक्तता माइटोकॉन्ड्रिया में साइटोक्रोम ऑक्सीडेज एंजाइम को रोकती है, जिससे कोशिकीय हाइपोक्सिया होता है।

  119. Q119

    During the metabolism of amino acids, the amino acids are converted to keto acids by which of the following processes?

    • ATransamination
    • BDecarboxylation
    • COxidative deamination
    • DDehydration
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Transamination is the enzymatic process through which amino acids are converted into their respective keto acids by transferring their amino group to a keto acid acceptor. ट्रांसएमीनेशन प्रक्रिया के दौरान अमीनो एसिड कीटो एसिड में परिवर्तित होते हैं।

  120. Q120

    Which of the following tumor is known as Jacob's ulcer?

    • ABasal cell carcinoma
    • BSquamous cell carcinoma
    • CMelanoma
    • DPapilloma
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, particularly when presenting as an ulcerative lesion on the face or eyelids, is historically and clinically referred to as Jacob's ulcer. स्क्वैमस सेल कार्सिनोमा को जैकब अल्सर (Jacob's ulcer) के रूप में भी जाना जाता है।

  121. Q121

    Amoebiasis is an example of which of the following?

    • AAmphixenoses
    • BZooanthroponoses
    • CAnthrapozoonoses
    • DNone of the above
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Amoebiasis is classified as an anthroponoses (or anthropozoonosis), which refers to infections naturally transmissible from humans to animals. अमीबायसिस एंथ्रापोज़ूनोसिस (anthrapozoonoses) का एक उदाहरण है, जो मनुष्यों से जानवरों में फैलने वाली बीमारी है।

  122. Q122

    Aberrant migration of immature stages of which of the following nematode parasite causes cerebrospinal nematodiasis in domestic animals?

    • AToxocara vitulorum
    • BSetaria digitata
    • CStrongylus vulgaris
    • DTrichinella spiralis
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Cerebrospinal nematodiasis (also known as lumbar paralysis) in domestic animals is typically caused by the aberrant migration of the immature stages of the filarial nematode parasite Setaria digitata. सेटारिया डिजिटा (Setaria digitata) के अपरिपक्व चरणों के असामान्य प्रवास के कारण सेरेब्रोस्पाइनल नेमाटोडियासिस होता है।

  123. Q123

    The Community Development Programme was launched in India on $2^{\text{nd}}$ October, 1952 with -

    • A45 community development projects
    • B49 community development projects
    • C59 community development projects
    • D55 community development projects
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The Community Development Programme was officially launched in India on 2nd October 1952, initially comprising 55 community development projects across various states to promote rural development. इसलिए विकल्प (D) सही है।

  124. Q124

    Grapevine communication is -

    • AFormal
    • BVertical
    • CNon-verbal
    • DInformal
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Grapevine communication is an informal type of workplace communication that spreads through social networks rather than official organizational channels. इसलिए विकल्प (D) सही है।

  125. Q125

    Laminitis is observed in which of the following diseases in cattle?

    • ARuminal alkalosis
    • BAbomasal impaction
    • CSubacute ruminal acidosis
    • DIntestinal obstruction
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Subacute ruminal acidosis (SARA) in cattle frequently leads to laminitis due to the release of endotoxins and vasoactive amines resulting from ruminal dysbiosis. अतः विकल्प (C) सही है।

  126. Q126

    Alcohol-Alizarin test of milk is used to determine -

    • AHeat stability and milk acidity
    • BAdulteration of water in milk
    • CVegetable fat in milk
    • DUrea in milk
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The Alcohol-Alizarin test is widely used in dairy science to check the heat stability and acidity of milk. The alizarin dye acts as an indicator for pH changes, while alcohol precipitates unstable proteins, making it an effective measure of milk quality.

  127. Q127

    Infectious bacterial causes of abortion in cattle is -

    • ABrucellosis
    • BLeptospirosis
    • CListeriosis
    • DAll of the above
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Brucellosis, Leptospirosis, and Listeriosis are all well-known bacterial infections that cause reproductive failures and abortions in cattle. Therefore, all the listed options are correct bacterial causes of abortion in cattle.

  128. Q128

    India's global rank in milk production is (Source FAO) -

    • A$\text{III}^{\text{rd}}$
    • B$\text{II}^{\text{nd}}$
    • C$\text{IV}^{\text{th}}$
    • D$\text{I}^{\text{st}}$
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    According to FAO data, India holds the 1st (first) rank globally in total milk production, contributing a major share to world milk production. इसलिए विकल्प (D) सही है।

  129. Q129

    During hay making, loss of nutrients because of heavy rains may occur through -

    • AEffluent loss
    • BBleaching
    • CLeaching
    • DDraining
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    During hay making, heavy rains wash away soluble nutrients and dry matter from the cut forage through leaching. अतः विकल्प (C) सही है।

  130. Q130

    The principle of chemotherapy that aims to damage the pathogens or cancer cells without causing significant harm to the host is known as -

    • ASelective toxicity
    • BCross resistance
    • CDrug synergism
    • DChemoprophylaxis
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Selective toxicity refers to the pharmacological principle where a drug selectively targets and destroys pathogens or cancer cells without causing undue harm to the host's tissues. इसलिए विकल्प (A) सही है।

  131. Q131

    Accumulation of purulent exudates within the guttural pouch is termed as -

    • ARanula
    • BAtheroma
    • CLampas
    • DEmpyema
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Empyema is defined as the accumulation or collection of pus (purulent exudates) within a naturally existing body cavity, such as the guttural pouch in horses. अतः विकल्प (D) सही है।

  132. Q132

    Diffuse plasma cell infiltration of the endometrium superimposed on cystic hyperplasia is observed in which type of the cystic hyperplasia-pyometra complex in the bitch?

    • AType II
    • BType III
    • CType I
    • DType IV
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    Diffuse plasma cell infiltration of the endometrium superimposed on cystic hyperplasia corresponds specifically to Type II of the cystic hyperplasia-pyometra complex in the bitch. इसलिए विकल्प (A) सही है।

  133. Q133

    Which of the following is not used as a curing compound for preservation of poultry meat?

    • ACane sugar
    • BSalt
    • CStarch
    • DSodium Nitrite
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Starch is not used as a curing compound, whereas salt (sodium chloride), sugar (cane sugar), and sodium nitrite are standard curing agents used in meat preservation for flavoring, moisture retention, and microbial inhibition.

  134. Q134

    The vertebral formula of Ox is -

    • AC7 T13 L7 S3 Cy18-25
    • BC7 T13 L6 S5 Cy15-25
    • CC7 T14-15 L6-7 S4 Cy18-24
    • DC7 T18 L6 S5 Cy16-22
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    The standard vertebral formula for an ox is C7 T13 L7 S3 Cy18-25, representing 7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar, 3 sacral, and 18 to 25 caudal (coccygeal) vertebrae.

  135. Q135

    Which one of the following drugs is known to have both therapeutic and long-acting prophylactic action against bovine babesiosis?

    • AOxytetracycline
    • BDiminazene aceturate
    • CImidocarb dipropionate
    • DQuinapyramine sulphate
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Imidocarb dipropionate is widely recognized for possessing both therapeutic and long-acting prophylactic efficacy against bovine babesiosis (piroplasmosis).

  136. Q136

    As an anthelmintic, what is the dose rate of Levamisole hydrochloride in cattle and sheep?

    • A12.5 mg/kg b.wt. orally
    • B7.5 mg/kg b.wt. orally
    • C15 mg/kg b.wt. orally
    • D2.5 mg/kg b.wt. orally
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    The standard therapeutic dose rate of Levamisole hydrochloride administered orally as an anthelmintic in cattle and sheep is 7.5 mg/kg body weight.

  137. Q137

    Purpura haemorrhagica is a complication of -

    • ATuberculosis
    • BAnthrax
    • CStrangles
    • DHaemorrhagic septicaemia
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Purpura haemorrhagica is a well-known non-thrombocytopenic immune-mediated vasculitis that occurs as a serious post-infection complication of strangles in horses.

  138. Q138

    Which of the following disease shows button ulcers in the intestine?

    • ASalmonellosis
    • BJohne's disease
    • CRinderpest
    • DSwine fever
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Classic swine fever (hog cholera) characteristically produces distinct necrotic 'button ulcers' in the mucosa of the large intestine, particularly around the ileocecal valve.

  139. Q139

    Spontaneous Ovulation is seen in -

    • ARabbit
    • BFerret
    • CCat
    • DNone of the above
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Rabbits, ferrets, and cats are all induced ovulators, meaning they require coital stimulation to trigger ovulation; therefore, none of them exhibit spontaneous ovulation (making 'None of the above' correct).

  140. Q140

    Which of the following is the major acute-phase protein in horses?

    • AC-reactive Protein (CRP)
    • BSerum amyloid A (SAA)
    • CHaptoglobin
    • D$\alpha_1$ - acid glycoprotein
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Serum amyloid A (SAA) is the major and most responsive acute-phase protein in horses, showing dramatic increases in concentration during inflammatory and infectious conditions.

  141. Q141

    Typically, which of the following form of dentition is exhibited by ruminants?

    • AMonophyodont
    • BDiphyodont
    • CPolyphyodont
    • DAll of the above
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Ruminants, like most mammals, exhibit a diphyodont dentition, meaning they have two successive sets of teeth in their lifetime: deciduous (milk) teeth and permanent teeth. (रuminants में diphyodont dentition होती है, जिसका अर्थ है कि उनके जीवन में दूध के दांत और स्थायी दांत दो अलग-अलग सेटों में आते हैं।)

  142. Q142

    Which of the following organ is the site of erythropoietin production in dog?

    • ABone marrow
    • BLiver
    • CSpleen
    • DKidney
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    In dogs, just like in humans and other mammals, the primary organ responsible for the production of erythropoietin (a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production) is the kidney. (कुत्तों में, एरिथ्रोपोएटिन नामक हार्मोन का मुख्य उत्पादन अंग किडनी होती है, जो लाल रक्त कोशिकाओं के निर्माण को उत्तेजित करती है।)

  143. Q143

    Omphalocele is also known as -

    • APelvic hernia
    • BScrotal hernia
    • CInguinal hernia
    • DUmbilical hernia
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Omphalocele is a congenital birth defect where abdominal organs protrude outside through the umbilical ring, which is why it is also commonly referred to as an umbilical hernia. (Omphalocele एक जन्मजात दोष है जिसमें पेट के अंग नाभि के जरिए बाहर निकल आते हैं, इसलिए इसे अम्बिलिकल हर्निया भी कहा जाता है।)

  144. Q144

    Which of the following feature best characterizes biofilms?

    • AFree-floating bacteria that are rapidly killed by antibiotics
    • BA layer of dead cells adherent to a surface
    • CBacterial colonies freely suspended in liquid
    • DBacteria encased within an extracellular polymeric matrix
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Biofilms are best characterized by microorganisms encased within a self-produced extracellular polymeric substance (EPS) matrix, making them highly resistant to antibiotics. (बायोफिल्म की मुख्य विशेषता यह है कि बैक्टीरिया एक एक्स्ट्रासेल्यूलर पॉलीमेरिक मैट्रिक्स के भीतर घिरे होते हैं, जिससे वे एंटीबायोटिक्स के प्रति अत्यधिक प्रतिरोधी बन जाते हैं।)

  145. Q145

    Pipe - stem liver is a characteristic finding of which of the following?

    • ARhinosporidiosis
    • BAscariosis
    • CSchistosomiasis
    • DFasciolosis
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why D

    Pipe-stem liver is the classic pathological finding in chronic fasciolosis, caused by the extensive fibrosis and calcification of the bile ducts due to liver fluke migration. (क्रोनिक फैसिओलोसिस में पित्त नलिकाओं के अत्यधिक रेशेदार होने और कैल्सीफिकेशन के कारण 'पाइप-स्टेम लीवर' की विशेषता पाई जाती है।)

  146. Q146

    Temperature maintained in the smokehouse for processing of sausage is -

    • A68-70°C
    • B48-50°C
    • C78-80°C
    • D58-60°C
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why A

    During the processing and smoking of sausages in a smokehouse, the typical temperature maintained is around 68-70°C to ensure proper cooking, drying, and flavouring. (सॉसेज की प्रोसेसिंग के दौरान स्मोकहाउस में सामान्य तापमान 68-70°C रखा जाता है ताकि उचित पकाने और स्वाद की प्रक्रिया हो सके।)

  147. Q147

    The average fat percentage in camel milk is -

    • A4.5%
    • B8.6%
    • C3.1%
    • D6.6%
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    The average fat percentage in camel milk typically ranges around 3.1%, making it relatively lower in fat compared to some other dairy species. (ऊंट के दूध में औसत वसा (fat) प्रतिशत आमतौर पर लगभग 3.1% होता है, जो इसे अन्य दूध देने वाले पशुओं की तुलना में कम वसायुक्त बनाता है।)

  148. Q148

    The latest notified breed "Kheri" belongs to which of the following species?

    • ACattle
    • BGoat
    • CBuffalo
    • DSheep
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    Kheri is a recognized goat breed native to the state of Rajasthan in India, known for its distinct traits. (खेरी एक मान्यता प्राप्त बकरी की नस्ल है जो मुख्य रूप से भारत के राजस्थान राज्य से संबंधित है।)

  149. Q149

    The method of individual selection in which any individual, who fails to reach the required standard for even one single trait, is rejected regardless of his performance in other traits, is considered as -

    • ATandem selection
    • BIndependent culling level
    • CSelection index
    • DNone of the above
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why B

    In the independent culling level method of selection, minimum standards are set for each trait, and any individual failing to meet the standard for even a single trait is rejected regardless of its performance in other traits.

  150. Q150

    Which of the following foodborne pathogens can grow and multiply at low temperatures often found with normal refrigeration?

    • AClostridium perfringens
    • BSalmonella spp.
    • CListeria monocytogenes
    • DEscherichia coli
    • EQuestion not attempted
    Why C

    Listeria monocytogenes is a well-known psychrotrophic foodborne pathogen capable of surviving, growing, and multiplying even at low refrigeration temperatures.